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Assignment: SCIE211 Phase 4 Lab Report Title: Analysis of Energy Sources

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

Name:

 

Date:

 

Instructor’s Name:

 

Assignment: SCIE211 Phase 4 Lab Report

 

Title: Analysis of Energy Sources

 

Instructions: You will write a 1-page lab report using the scientific method.

 

When your lab report is complete, post it in Submitted Assignment files.

 

Part I: Using the lab animation, fill in the data table below to gather your data, and use it to help you generate your hypothesis, outcomes, and analysis.

 

Energy Source Fuel (Coal)/Uranium Needed (tons) CO2 Emissions
(tons)
Sulfur Dioxide and Other Emissions (tons) Radioactivity mSv (millisievert) Solid Waste (tons) Accidents
Coal            
Nuclear            

 

 

 

Part II: Write a 1-page lab report using the following scientific method sections:

  • Purpose
    • State the purpose of the lab.
  • Introduction
    • This is an investigation of what is currently known about the question being asked. Use background information from credible references to write a short summary about concepts in the lab. List and cite references in APA style.
  • Hypothesis/Predicted Outcome
    • A hypothesis is an educated guess. Based on what you have learned and written about in the Introduction, state what you expect to be the results of the lab procedures.
  • Methods
    • Summarize the procedures that you used in the lab. The Methods section should also state clearly how data (numbers) were collected during the lab; this will be reported in the Results/Outcome section.
  • Results/Outcome
    • Provide here any results or data that were generated while doing the lab procedure.
  • Discussion/Analysis
    • In this section, state clearly whether you obtained the expected results, and if the outcome was as expected.
    • Note: You can use the lab data to help you discuss the results and what you learned.

Provide references in APA format. This includes a reference list and in-text citations for references used in the Introduction section.

Give your paper a title and number, and identify each section as specified above. Although the hypothesis will be a 1-sentence answer, the other sections will need to be paragraphs to adequately explain your experiment.

When your lab report is complete, post it in Submitted Assignment files.

 

 

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Need lab done for SCI207 Our dependence upon the environment details & forms attached

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor
  • Prior to beginning work on this assignment, read the Climate Change investigation manual. This lab enables you to explore concepts related to global climate including, the greenhouse effect, albedo, and melting land and sea ice.
  • The Process
  • Take the required photos and complete all parts of the lab assignment (calculations, data tables, etc.). Use the Lab Worksheet as a resource to complete the Lab Report Template. Transfer any answers and visual elements from the Lab Worksheet into the Lab Report  Template. You will submit the Lab Report Template through Waypoint in the classroom.
  • The Assignment
  • Make sure to complete all of the following items before submission:
  • Before you begin the assignment, read the Climate Change investigation manual; you may also wish to review the video, SCI207 – The Scientific Method (Links to an external site.).
  • Complete all activities using materials in your kit, augmented by additional materials that you will supply. Photograph each activity following these instructions:
  • When taking lab photos, you need to include in each image a strip of paper with your name and the date clearly written on it.
  • This lab will require you to make two line graphs and one bar graph. Should you desire further guidance on how to construct a graph, it is recommended that you review the Introduction to Graphing lab manual. (You are not expected to complete any of the activities in this manual.)
  • Use the Lab Worksheet as a guide to complete the Lab Report Template.
  • Must use at least two credible sources outside of the textbook and lab manual.
  • Submit your completed “Lab Report” via Waypoint.

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HSA 535 Midterm Exam

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

Question 1 .

The first step in any epidemiological investigation is to ____.

Answer

understand causation establish risk factors track trends and determine if particular diseases are increasing or decreasing in the population describe the population demographically by age, race, sex, education, and other relevant indicators

Question 2 .

One of the important concepts from the Nuremberg Code is that of ____, which means that the subject understands the scope of the study and can make an informed decision to participate.

Answer

informed consent voluntary consent beneficence primary agent

Question 3 .

A disease or condition that affects a greater than expected (normal) number of individuals within a population, community, or region at the same time is referred to as an ____.

Answer

epidemic endemic outbreak epidemic threshold

Question 4 .

The normal occurrence of a disease or condition common to persons within a localized area is known as a(n) ____.

Answer

transmission pandemic endemic epidemic

Question 5 .

Reproductive health studies ____.

Answer

the role of genetics in disease development the occurrence and risk factors for disease such as cancer, heart disease, and diabetes that are slow to develop but span many years the distribution and risk factors for injuries, either accidental or intentional normal reproductive processes and problems that can occur including infertility, birth defects, and low birth weight

Question 6 .

The course of a disease, if left untreated, is referred to as ____.

Answer

transmission control measure natural history geographic pattern

Question 7 .

Physical, biological, social, cultural, and behaviors that influence health are known as ____.

Answer

risk factors health-related states agents determinants

Question 8 .

James Lind (1716-1794) observed the effect of time, place, weather, and diet on the spread of disease by ____.

Answer

comparing sick persons to well persons applying the germ theory to public health introducing randomization when conducting clinical trials applying the germ theory to hygiene practices

QUestion 9

The aspect of consistency means that ____.

Answer

an increasing amount of exposure increases the risk the association should be compatible with existing theory and knowledge the association is consistent when results are repeated in studies in different settings using different methods the findings agree with currently accepted understanding of pathological processes

QUestion 10

The modern epidemiologic triangle includes groups of populations, causative factors, and ____.

Answer

alternate explanations risk factors results coherence

Question 11

For chronic diseases, the time between exposure and symptoms is called the ____ period, which can range from a few months to many years.

Answer

latency incubation temporal plausibility

Question 12

Risk factors or exposures that we think might affect the outcome are known as ____.

Answer

indirect causes direct causes dependent variables independent variables

QUestion 13

Identifying diseases prior to the clinical stage means that prevention efforts can begin immediately. Because the disease is already present, this is an example of ____ prevention.

Answer

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

QUestion 14 The time between infection and clinical disease is referred to as a(n) ____.

Answer

a plausible period temporal period incubation period latency period

Question 15 .

A proportion measured over a period of time is known as a ____.

Answer

period prevalence prevalence proportion point prevalence rate

Question 16

The representation of a numerator as a fraction of a denominator is known as a(n) ____.

Answer

proportion rate incidence rate specific rate

Question 17 .

Prevalence equals ____.

Answer

incidence times duration of disease incidence divided by duration of disease incidence plus duration of disease incidence divided by duration of disease times 100

Question 18 .

While many people are used to hearing proportions represented as a percentage, many population samples in epidemiology are often presented per ____.

Answer

1,000 10,000 100,000 1,000,000

.Question 19 .

By definition, the disease or condition used to identify a case is determined by the ____.

Answer

hypothesis conclusion prevalence incidence

Question 20 .

A person in the population or study group identified as having the particular disease, health disorder, or condition under investigation is known as a ____.

Answer

person time case suspect case proportion

QUestion 21:

The number of new cases of disease in a specified time (usually one year) divided by the population “at-risk” to develop the disease is known as ____.

Answer

prevalence proportion incidence rate contingency case severity

Question 22 .

The number of existing cases of disease divided by the population is known as ____.

Answer

crude rate person time incidence rate prevalence proportion

Question 23 .

If a bacterium carries several resistance genes, it is called a ____.

Answer

multidrug resistant drug or super-drug multidrug resistant bacterium or superbug resistant bacterium or streptococcus bacterium killer bacterium or deadly bacterium

.Question 24 .

The disease carrier of most concern is known as a(n) ____, which is an infected person who never gets clinically ill, but can transmit the etiologic agent to others.

Answer

healthy or passive carrier pregnant carrier convalescent carrier active carrier

Question 25 .

____ is the transmission of a disease from mother to child during pregnancy or delivery.

Answer

Horizontal transmission Vertical transmission Lateral transmission Polar transmission

Question 26

There is ____ in the overall crude death rate in the United States from the year 1900 until 1996.

Answer

a definite increase a slight decrease hardly any change a clear decline

Question 27 .

The probability of death due to infectious disease in sub-Saharan Africa is ____%, but only ____% in developed countries, such as the United States.

Answer

22; 1.1 35; 10 66; 11 50; 22

Question 28 .

One of the most important emerging problems with the control of infectious diseases has to do with ____.Answer

deadly parasitic infections antibiotic resistant viral infections antibiotic resistant bacterial infections vaccine resistant viral infections

Question 29 .

A(n) ____ is an infected individual capable of transmitting disease during and after clinical disease.

Answer

convalescent carrier passive carrier active carrier inactive carrier

Question 30 . ____ is the transmission of a disease from person to person, and may be directly from one person to another, or indirectly from one person through an intermediate item to another person.

Answer

Horizontal transmission Vertical transmission Quick transmission Polar transmission

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Environmental science homework help

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor
If you place 20 grams of helium at room temperature into a closed container that holds 500 mL, and then later transfer the helium into a 1000 mL closed container, which of the gas’ properties will change? Select answer A weight Select answer B viscosity Select answer C mass Select answer D density

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human&environment assignments

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

Name ________________________ Sec. _________

Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.6 pH is a measure of the acidity of a solution.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. A solution where water is the solvent is called a(n) solution.

2. Label the diagram with the following terms: hydroxide ion and hydrogen ion.

 

3. What are two negative effects of too much acid in nature?

 

4. Complete the pH scale with the following terms/phrases: greater H+, lower H+, H+ = OH−.

 

 

 

 

5. As the pH increases the [ H+ ] ____, and as the pH decreases the [ H+ ] ____.

A) decreases; increases

B) increases; decreases

C) increases; stays the same

D) decreases; stays the same

6. Complete the following table regarding acids and bases.

Acids Bases

Effect on H+ when dissolved in H2O

pH range

Example

7. The pH in your cells is dropping. You have buffers to minimize this change in pH. Briefly explain what

the buffer would do in this situation with respect to the H+ concentration in your cells.

 

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.7 All life on Earth is based on carbon.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. The element is essential to an organic compound.

2. What is meant by the term carbon skeleton, and how can carbon skeletons vary?

 

3. Is the following molecule an organic compound?

 

 

4. The oxygen atom in ethyl alcohol forms a polar covalent bond with the carbon atom. Does ethyl alcohol

readily interact with water? Hint: Revisit module 2.5 if necessary.

 

 

 

 

5. Identify any functional groups from the following molecule.

 

 

6. help to determine the overall properties of molecules.

7. Complete the table that describes the four classes of large biological molecules.

Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Nucleic acids

Example

Function of

example

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.8 Most biological macromolecules are polymers.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. Much of your mass consists of large biological molecules called .

2. _________________ is the process by which polymers are broken into monomers.

A) Metabolism

B) Dehydration synthesis

C) Macromolecules

D) Hydrolysis

3. A common polymer is starch. We break starch down for use as an energy source. Is starch digestion hy-

drolysis or dehydration synthesis?

 

 

 

 

4. Complete the following diagram using the following terms: dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis.

 

 

5. Which of the following best describes the following process: glucose + glucose  maltose + H2O?

A) Polarity

B) Hydrolysis

C) Metabolism

D) Dehydration synthesis

 

 

 

6. Complete the following diagram illustrating dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis.

 

7. is the total of all reactions that take place in your cells.

8. How are dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis opposites of each other?

 

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.9 Carbohydrates are composed of monosaccharides.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of carbohydrates?

A) Energy source for animals

B) Inclusion of monosaccharides

C) Use as a structure in plants

D) All of the above

2. The monomers of carbohydrates are .

3. Glucose is a monosaccharide. Is glucose also a carbohydrate? Briefly explain your answer.

 

4. Glucose and fructose both have the molecular formula C6H12O6, yet they are different molecules. Glu-

cose and fructose are .

5. Two monosaccharides joined by a dehydration synthesis would form a(n) . List two exam-

ples of a disaccharide.

 

 

 

 

6. Complete the following illustration regarding monosaccharides and polysaccharides. Glucose is used to

construct which polysaccharides?

 

7. Complete the following table regarding monosaccharides and polysaccharides.

Starch Glucose Cellulose Glycogen

Monomer or polymer

Function

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.10 Lipids are a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. The one feature common to all lipids is that they are .

2. A tanker is carrying crude oil from Alaska to a port in California. During the trip, the ship’s hull is rup-

tured and it spills the crude oil into the Pacific Ocean. The oil sits on top of the water and does not mix

with it. What characteristic must be true about the oil?

 

3. A cell’s membrane consists, in large part, of a molecule called a phospholipid. Does a phospholipid

“love” or “fear” water? Briefly explain your answer.

 

 

 

 

4. Complete the following diagram of a phospholipid.

 

5. The two layers of phospholipids that make up a cell’s membrane are arranged so that they are

facing tail to tail. What would be the effect of this interior core of phospholipid tails? Hint: Keep in

mind what you already know about phospholipid tails.

 

6. True or false: Cholesterol is used within the cell to help maintain the structure of the cell’s

membrane.

 

 

 

7. Which of the following is not a lipid?

A) Triglycerides

B) Cholesterol

C) Anabolic steroids

D) All of the above

8. Are both steroids and triglycerides in your body? If so, give a function performed by each.

 

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.11 Your diet contains several different kinds of fats.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. There are two kinds of triglycerides. What are they?

 

2. Which fatty acid tail from the following diagram is saturated? Which one is unsaturated? Briefly ex-

plain your answers.

 

 

3. Saturated means that an object can hold no more of something. Briefly explain why the terms saturated

and unsaturated are good descriptors for the molecules they describe.

 

 

 

4. You are a biochemist working for a food manufacturer. You are working to identify a new fat you have

discovered in a plant from a rainforest of Brazil. During your investigation, you determine that the fat

tends to be a liquid at room temperature, and a biochemical analysis reveals too few hydrogen atoms for

the amount of carbon that is present. What kind of fat have you likely discovered?

 

 

 

 

5. An unsaturated fat can be turned into a solid or semi-solid state by __________________________.

A) omega-3 fatty acidification

B) hydrophilic

C) hydrogenation

D) unsaturation

6. Two students are discussing triglycerides. One student tells the other that all fats are bad for your health.

The second student disagrees with that statement. Which student is correct? Briefly explain your an-

swer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.12 Proteins perform many of life’s functions.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. A protein’s determines its function.

2. _____ are the monomers from which large proteins are constructed.

A) Polymers

B) Amino acids

C) Polypeptides

D) Peptide bonds

3. Identify the peptide bond in the following illustration.

 

 

 

 

4. You are a biochemist working for a pharmaceutical company. You are identifying a new molecule you

have isolated from a species of bat. You determine that the molecule contains a carboxylic acid group

and a group of atoms that would give the molecule unique hydrophilic properties. The power goes out

before you can finish your analysis. Based on what you know so far, what kind of molecule is it? What

else might you have learned from it if the power had not gone out?

 

 

5. True or false: Amino acids are joined together through a dehydration synthesis reaction forming a pep-

tide bond.

6. Complete the table on protein structure.

Polypeptide Folded chain Multiple chains

Description

7. Proteins serve many functions within your body. List three functions served by proteins in your body.

Additionally, list a specific protein that performs that function.

 

 

 

 

 

8. Protein shape is crucial to its proper function. Students have difficulty grasping this idea and how

changing shape affects function. Briefly explain how the words tasty and nasty can serve as a good anal-

ogy for a teacher trying to explain this concept to students.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Guided Reading Activity

Module 2.13 Enzymes speed chemical reactions.

Answer the following questions as you read the module:

1. A protein that speeds up chemical reactions is a(n) .

2. True or false: A chemical reaction changes the shape of the enzyme permanently. If false, make it a true

statement.

 

3. Complete the following diagram regarding enzymes and substrates.

 

 

 

 

4. Briefly explain what would happen if you altered the shape of an enzyme’s active site. Remember that

an enzyme is a protein.

 

 

5. The amount of energy needed to perform a chemical reaction is the __________________________.

A) activation energy

B) substrate energy

C) active site

D) inhibition site

6. Complete the following diagram, which illustrates activation energy.

 

7. In pole vaulting, the higher the bar is placed, the more difficult it is to clear it. Explain why this is a

good analogy to help students understand enzymes and activation energy.

 

 

 

 

 

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Case Study- Evr Science

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

Part II

1. What is in some fish and shellfish that has caused the EPA and FDA to issue the restriction?

2. Why is there a restriction for pregnant women and young children, but not the rest of the population? 3. Do pregnant women have to avoid all fish? Explain your answer.

4. Should Amanda have avoided the pan-seared tuna for lunch?

Part III

1. What human actions lead to increased mercury levels in the environment?

2. How does the mercury end up in fish? Draw a flow chart following the mercury path.

3. Where in the United States are mercury wet deposition levels highest? What do you think explains this pattern?

4. The EPA criterion for human health is 0.3 ug/g. Which fish species have average mercury concentrations that exceed the EPA limits?

5. The concern level for piscivorous (fish-eating) mammals is 0.1 Hg ug/g. Which fish species have average mercury concentrations that exceed this limit? Why is the mercury level for piscivorous mammals lower than the level for human health?

6. Should you be concerned about mercury toxicity if you catch and eat a largemouth bass in a local lake? Why or why not?

7. In which samples were mercury concentrations the highest (fi sh, streams, or sediment)? Why do you think this is?

Part IV

1. Draw a food web for Lake Washington using the species and food preferences given in Table 3. Start with phytoplankton (algae) as the base of your web and then build up the food chain.

2. Label the species in your food chain as either high (>100 ug/kg), medium (20-100 ug/kg), or low (below20 ug/kg) mercury concentrations. Which types of animals have the highest levels of mercury? Which types of animals have the lowest? Why do you think this is?

Final Activity

1. Imagine you are Tara. Write an email to your friend Amanda explaining what you have learned about mercury. Be sure to convey the aspects of your learning that will be most useful to Amanda.

2. Find two other examples of compounds that biomagnify. Explain how each compound and/or toxin enters the biosphere and what impacts it has on living organisms in general and humans in particular.

 

3. Distinguish between bioaccumulation and biomagnifi cation and design a mnemonic device for the distinction.

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Environmental science homework help

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

Choose two of the following four case studies and answer questions by using Code of Ethics for Professional Engineers as your guideline in addition to your readings and understanding of sustainability.

Use Times New Roman 12 pt.

Single Line Spacing

1 page or 350 words minimum

2 pages or 700 words maximum

Show good faith effort

Cite the references you used to support your ideas, and claims. (IEEE style of citation)

Save it as PDF and upload it to BB for HW2. Check the rubric to see how this assignment will be graded. Meet all the requirements above to get a full credit, Failure to meet any of the above criteria will get “zero credit”.

 

Case Study 1: Kara has been working as an environmental engineer at a consulting firm for over twenty-five years. Well-known for settling disputes between her corporate clients before litigation must be pursued, Kara often analyzes technical data, particularly distributions of solid particle pollution, presented by disputing parties to help them reach a compromise on the cost of environmental cleanup. For example, two parties may be separated from one another by a strip of land; however, each party must fiscally contribute in keeping the land free from pollutants. One day, Kara was contacted by a journalist to talk about her experiences at the firm. Kara spoke about how she often encountered cases where companies did not accurately depict levels of solid particle pollution occupying the companies’ respective surroundings. Instead, technical experts, who are mostly engineers, would misrepresent data in order to make it seem that minority parties were responsible for a greater part of the contamination. At the end of the interview, Kara emphasized the necessity of engineers taking ownership and being honest about the presentation of data. Q: At what point does an engineer’s interpretation of data move from sound technical reasoning to misrepresentation? How should engineers deal with the pressure to come up with data that may indicate favorable results for their employers? Credit: Jocelyn Tan was a 2014-2015 Hackworth Fellow in Engineering Ethics at the Markkula Center for Applied Ethics at Santa Clara University.

 

Case Study2: Solomon is a principal engineer at an environmental engineering consulting firm. His main role is to advise clients on what type of action to take when they are faced with risks and liabilities while conducting certain projects. In one case, Solomon had a client that wanted to expand their campus until it was within approximately 50 meters of a marshland. After construction of this extension, however, the client must ensure that a proper waste management plan is in place so that contamination will have minimal effect on the surrounding habitat. The client came up with a solution that satisfied, but did not go beyond the bare minimum of state regulations. In other words, although Solomon’s client prioritized a cost-effective plan, the environment would be subject to a certain percentage of contamination that would, within five to ten years, stifle the marshland’s flourishing. Q:Should Solomon push for a more fiscally demanding, yet sustainable strategy–at the risk of his client backing out of the partnership altogether? Credit: Jocelyn Tan was a 2014-2015 Hackworth Fellow in Engineering Ethics at the Markkula Center for Applied Ethics at Santa Clara University.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Case Study 3: After earning a graduate degree in Engineering Management, Ashton began working for PDRC International. This is a company based in the U.S. which offers engineering, design, and construction services to countries all over the world. Ashton’s work is focused on international development; her first assignment is to lead a team to develop a bid for a highway construction project in East Africa. After the engineering proposal is submitted, Ashton is proud of the work her team has accomplished and promises her manager she will do everything possible to make sure that PDRC receives the contract. PDRC’s bid is well-received, and Ashton and her team are flown to East Africa to finish negotiations. Ashton is thrilled when her company receives the bid; the only stipulation is that they build their construction headquarters in a specific region in the country. Ashton then begins scouting the region for a location to build their headquarters. In order to obtain building permits in the region, Ashton has to negotiate with the local government. As she begins negotiations, she realizes that bribery is both a common and expected practice. If she does not bribe the local officials, she will not be able to build PDRC’s headquarters in that region and consequently will lose the contract; her first managerial project will be a failure. However, it is illegal for a U.S. citizen to bribe a foreign official in order to obtain business; if she is caught for bribery, she could face jail time and her company could be fined millions of dollars. Q: What should she do? Explain your answer. Credit: Clare Bartlett was a 2014-2015 Hackworth Fellow in Engineering Ethics at the Markkula Center for Applied Ethics at Santa Clara University.

 

Case Study 4: Jack has been working as a project engineer for a mechanical energy technology firm for a few years now, and has recently been promoted to review projects for in-need communities overseas. He has been put in charge of managing the current company’s charity projects, and determining how to distribute the funding for them. Some of the projects are pretty straightforward in their mission and material requirement, but for one project, Jack isn’t sure whether the company should be funding it. The project’s mission is to provide new solar panels for an East African community but the project data suggests it is more practical to just install better lighting inside the homes. Jack wonders whether to bring up his doubts with his boss. Based on the company’s research on the community, the community desires better lighting system for their homes, and the solar panels would be an expensive and high maintenance project. Not to mention, there was a previous project that (when followed through) resulted in equipment being stolen from the same region to exchange for money. Jack understands their local sponsor would gain a great advantage in featuring solar panels in the community. It would also foster a good business partnership between the two companies. However, Jack feels it is his responsibility to provide the community with a more simple and efficient solution to their problem, without diving into a large project that could possibly lead to negative side effects. Q: Is Jack’s company wrong to provide technology to the community when they don’t need it? Credit: Nabilah Deen was a 2014-2015 Hackworth Fellow in Engineering Ethics at the Markkula Center for Applied Ethics at Santa Clara University

 

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Epidemiology

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor
  • Compose a brief Word document that answers the following questions.
  • Different measures of disease are useful to evaluate and assess public health programs and needs in different situations. Refer to Chapter 3 in Friis and Sellers (2014).
    • State which measure would best support your goal and briefly explain why you chose that measure for each of the following questions (numbers 1 – 5).

Measures of disease:

  • I = incidence rate (p. 126)
  • P = prevalence (p. 113)
  • L = lifetime prevalence (p. 114)
  • M = crude mortality rate (crude death rate) (p. 112)
  • R = sex ratio (counts) (p. 109)
  1.  To demonstrate the risks of car-train crashes at railroad crossings without warning signals.
  2. To demonstrate the amount of children’s exposure to secondhand cigarette smoke.
  3. To estimate the number of persons who have had leukemia during their lifetimes.
  4. To estimate the number of healthcare facilities needed to support patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
  5. To argue that mortality from HIV infection is a more serious public health problem in one region of the U.S than another.

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Legal Aspects of Safety and Health Unit I to Unit VIII Assignment

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

Unit I Assignment

Hi Jerry! This is your OSHA’s Area Director.

We received a non-formal complaint recently from one of your current employees. The complaint alleges that employees there are performing welding operations on stainless steel in an area with inadequate ventilation.

This employee also states that they frequently “cough up” black sputum, and that they are worried about the health consequences caused by this lack of ventilation.

The complaint further states that no air sampling has been performed to evaluate the employees’ exposures to welding fumes. And, that when asked for respirators, they were given “dust masks” with one strap, which were purchased at the local hardware store. The effectiveness of these dust masks for the exposure that is present is also in question.

I will also be sending you an email summarizing this non-formal complaint, so that you can respond accordingly.

Thanks Jerry! Goodbye.

Part 1

Draft a letter in response to the complaint. Your letter should summarize why you believe the complaint is invalid and no on-site inspection is required. Keep in mind, simply stating that the complaint is invalid is not adequate. You must support your opinions in the letter.

 

 

Part 2

(Answer the following question on the page 2 of your word document) Answer the questions below in a few sentences.

1. Where does this type of complaint fit on OSHA’s Priority criteria?

2. What factors could have made this complaint non-formal rather than formal?

3. What steps could you take as the employer to identify the employee who filed the complaint? 4. What factors could result in this complaint being reclassified as a formal complaint?

Save both parts of this assignment in one word document to submit for grading.

Unit II Assignment

Discussion Question

Question 1

Under what conditions can an employee be denied access to the opening conference, walk-around, and closing conference? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 2

If the OSHA compliance officer requests documents that are not related to a formal complaint, what options do you believe the employer has? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 3

If OSHA determines that an employer’s response to a non-formal complaint is adequate, what options does the employee filing the non-formal complaint have? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 4

Can an employee request that an attorney or union representative attend a private conference with the compliance officer? If the union demands to have a representative present, does the employee have to comply? Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Unit II Assignment

You receive a follow-up call from the area director saying the employee filing the original non-formal complaint has provided additional information about the alleged health situation and submitted a formal complaint using the OSHA-7 form, making the complaint a formal complaint. A few days later, an OSHA compliance officer shows up at your facility to perform a comprehensive inspection. The compliance officer presents the proper credentials, and you verify that the compliance officer is employed by OSHA and assigned to the local office.

During the opening conference, the compliance officer provides you with the formal complaint, alleging that employees are exposed to hazardous concentrations of metal fumes in welding areas of the plant, that you have not performed any air sampling to determine exposure levels, that adequate ventilation is not present in welding areas, and that adequate respiratory protection has not been provided to welders. As a part of the inspection, the compliance officer requests the following documents:

 

 Chemical inventory list;

 

 OSHA 300 logs;

 

 Hazard Communication Program, including training records;

 

 any sampling data that you have;

 

 Respiratory Protection Program, including medical clearance letters and training records;

 

 written hazard assessment for personal protective equipment (PPE) used at the facility;

 

 Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) for the metals you use in the production process and any welding rods/wire used in the welding area; and

 

 any other written programs you have that are required by an OSHA regulation.

 

The compliance officer takes a walk-through tour of the facility, spending extra time in the welding areas. During the walk-through, the compliance officer points out several issues believed to be apparent violations. The issues are as follows:

 

 Heavy haze is present in the welding area.

 

 Individuals wearing half-mask air-purifying respirators have full beards.

 

 Employees are using chemicals that could be injurious to the eyes, and no emergency eyewash is present.

 

 Eyewash is present in another area of the plant that is covered in dust, and there is no indication of recent operation or inspection.

 

 Employees are using chemicals that could be absorbed through the skin and are not using any gloves.

 

 Employees are performing maintenance inside a press with no lock-out/tag-out applied.

 

 No written lock-out/tag-out program is available at the time of the inspection.

 

 Welding operation is performed near flammable materials, and no fire watch present.

 

 There is no record of training for fork truck drivers.

 

 Extension cords are stretched across walkways.

 

 Three containers are present in the plant with no label present on any of the containers.

 

 An employee could not find a SDS for the chemical he or she was using.

 

The compliance officer asks for a private conference room and a list of non-managerial employees. He tells you that he intends to interview four non-managerial employees before leaving for the day. He also states that he will return the next day to collect some air samples at the facility.

You are worried about the number of citations and penalties that you may face. Provide a document summarizing the steps you would take as soon as the compliance officer leaves, and the steps you believe you could have taken during the walk-through that may have resulted in a quick-fix penalty reduction.

Your document must be at least three pages in length, not counting the title or reference pages. You must also include at least one reference using appropriate APA style.

Information about accessing the Blackboard Grading Rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit III Assignment

You receive a document (linked below) by certified mail. After reading the document, prepare a response that summarizes the approach you would take to the citations and penalties that have been proposed. Be sure to include the following in your response:

 Steps you are required to take,

 Options available to you,

 Contacts you would make, and

 Documentation necessary to respond to the citations and penalties.

Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited and a reference provide using APA style.  Click here to access the OSHA citation document for this assignment. Information about accessing the Blackboard Grading Rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit IV Assignment

Based on the Citation and Notification of Penalty letter you received in Unit III, prepare a document that summarizes at least five actions you would take as soon as possible after you reviewed the letter. For each of the actions, you must state the following:

 

 the exact action,

 

 why you believe the action is required for the citations and penalties,

 

 how you believe the actions will assist in responding to the citations and penalties, and

 

 resources you would use to accomplish the action.

 

You must support your actions with reliable sources. Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited, and a reference must be provided using APA style.

Information about accessing the Blackboard Grading Rubric for this assignment is provided below.

Unit V Assignment

You managed to schedule an informal conference with the area director at the regional OSHA office four days after you receive the Notice of Citations and Penalty. Based on the citations and penalties you received in Unit III, prepare a document that lists the citations and penalties you wish to discuss with the area director.

You should summarize what you are trying to accomplish in regard to each citation/penalty you choose, to include:

 The information you will use to try and accomplish your goal,

 The information you will take with you to the meeting, and

 Who will accompany you to the meeting.

You must support your actions with reliable sources. Your grade will be based on your ability to present a case to your professor (serving as the area director) to reduce either the severity of some citations, or the amount of some penalties. If you simply state that you accept the citations and penalties as written, you will receive a minimal score on the assignment.

Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, not including the title page and reference page. You must use at least one reference in the paper. All sources must be cited in the text and on the reference page, using APA style.

 

Unit VI Assignment

You fail to reach an informal settlement agreement with the area director. You file a Notice to Contest within the required 15-day period. Your case is assigned to an administrative law judge (ALJ). Prepare a document summarizing the case you will submit to the ALJ. The document should discuss the following at a minimum:

 Which citations and penalties you would contest,

 the reasoning behind each contested citation and/or penalty,

 Documents you would bring to the hearing,

 Individuals you would use at the hearing,

 How the case before the ALJ differs from the informal conference,

 What information will be presented before the ALJ that was not presented in the informal conference, and

 What information you would request from OSHA as part of discovery.

You must support your actions with reliable sources. Your grade will be based on your ability to present a case to your professor, serving as the ALJ, to reduce or vacate either the severity of some citations or the amount of some penalties. If you simply state that you accept the citations and penalties as written, you will receive a minimal score on the assignment.

Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited in the text and on the reference page, using APA style.

Unit VII Assignment

Assume that a fatality occurred at your facility one month prior to the OSHA inspection. Review the citations and penalties that were assessed to your facility, and respond to the following questions:

• Which of the citations could be referred to the U.S. DOJ for criminal proceedings?

• What conditions would have to be met before the citations could be referred for criminal proceedings?

• Which individuals working at your facility could face criminal charges under the Act?

• What would be the maximum prison sentence and fines that any individual would face?

• What would be the maximum fine that the company would face?

• If you were facing criminal charges under the Act, what would be your best defense?

• How could you involve the OSHRC in the criminal case(s)?

Your response must be a minimum of two pages in length, using at least one reference. All sources must be cited in the text and on the reference page, using APA style.

Unit 8- Question Answer

1. Summarize the procedures required to achieve Star status under OSHA’s Voluntary Protection Program (VPP).

2. Describe the role that Challenge Administrators play in the OSHA Challenge voluntary cooperative program.

3. Provide your opinion as to which OSHA voluntary cooperative program would be the most beneficial to a small business that prints business cards and letterhead.

4. Discuss the benefits that OSHA alliances provide to employers and workers in general industry.

 

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Environmental Science

September 17, 2025/in General Questions /by Besttutor

1) If atmospheric carbon dioxide was eliminated from our atmosphere, we would expect that the

 

Earth would:

 

A) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase

 

B) cool considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease

 

C) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically increase

 

D) heat up considerably and photosynthesis would dramatically decrease

 

2) Which of the following is a correlation that is causing widespread concern?

 

A) As atmospheric oxygen levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.

 

B) As atmospheric carbon dioxide levels decline, the ozone layer is being destroyed.

 

C) As levels of methane decline, average global temperatures are increasing.

 

D) As levels of carbon dioxide increase, average global temperatures are increasing.

 

3) Which of the following is part of natural capital but not ecosystem capital?

 

A) solar energy used to drive photosynthesis throughout the biosphere

 

B) coal and oil reserves

 

C) the production of electrical energy from wind turbines and dams

 

D) the genetic diversity of all plants and animals used in modern agriculture

 

4) From an ecological economist’s perspective, without sustainability, as economies grow:

 

A) gross national product grows too

 

B) natural resources are renewed

 

C) the natural world is depleted

 

D) natural ecosystems are replenished

 

5) Natural capital includes ecosystem capital plus:

 

A) natural forms of energy, such as solar, wind, and flowing water

 

B) nonrenewable resources such as fossil fuels

 

C) money available to invest in growing industry

 

D) all of the products of photosynthesis in the biosphere

 

6) The concept of sustainability requires that:

 

A) economic growth does not exceed the renewal of natural capital

 

B) all sources of energy used in an economy must come from the sun

 

C) global economic systems are based on the harvesting of natural products

 

D) economies use equal portions of land, labor, and capital

 

7) Uncertain about the best way to keep his new lizard alive, Jerome places a heat lamp at one

 

end of the long lizard cage. Over several days, Jerome notices that the lizard tends to sit in a

 

certain place when the lamp is on. The lizard’s selection of a particular place to stay

 

represents its:

 

A) range of tolerance

 

B) temperature optimum

 

C) biotic conditioning

 

D) use of a limited resource

 

8) As global climate change warms certain mountain ranges, the temperature optima for the insect

 

species living on the mountain is causing these insects to:

 

A) move higher up the mountain

 

B) move down the mountain

 

C) move to a new biome

 

D) become parasitic

 

9) Energy is lost as it moves from one trophic level to the next because:

 

A) one trophic level does not consume the entire trophic level below it

 

B) some of the calories consumed drive cellular activities and do not add mass

 

C) some ingested materials are undigested and eliminated

 

D) All of the above.

 

10) In general, biomes at higher latitudes are most like:

 

A) biomes at higher altitudes

 

B) aquatic biomes

 

C) biomes at lower altitudes

 

D) biomes at lower latitudes

 

11) Biomes with more than 75 centimeters (30 inches) of rain a year and that never experience

 

freezing temperatures are most likely found:

 

A) at high altitudes

 

B) nearest the equator at low altitudes

 

C) at high altitudes in temperate zones

 

D) at high altitudes and high latitudes

 

12) Biomes with permafrost are most likely:

 

A) covered in coniferous forests at high latitudes

 

B) in temperate zones with deciduous trees

 

C) located near the poles and without any trees

 

D) located at high altitudes nearest the equator

 

13) Biomes with less than 25 centimeters (10 inches) of rain a year are:

 

A) high in primary productivity

 

B) likely to have extremely cold winters

 

C) covered with coniferous trees

 

D) deserts

 

14) Which of the following are current limiting factors for future human population growth?

 

A) pollution and land for agriculture

 

B) availability of oxygen and water

 

C) fossil fuels and carbon dioxide production

 

D) oxygen levels in the atmosphere and availability of sodium chloride

 

15) According to demographer Joel Cohen, the human carrying capacity:

 

A) can be calculated in the same way it is determined for other animal species

 

B) depends upon a standard of living

 

C) can clearly be determined

 

D) largely depends upon the availability of fresh water

 

16) In a significant 2004 paper reviewing 69 studies on world human population and carrying

 

capacity, the authors estimated that the sustainable carrying capacity of humans for the

 

planet is about:

 

A) 600 million

 

B) 2.5 billion

 

C) 7.7 billion

 

D) 20 billion.

 

17) According to the UN Population Division and a significant 2004 paper reviewing 69 studies

 

on world human population and carrying capacity, the world population of humans will exceed

 

carrying capacity in about the year:

 

A) 2014

 

B) 2024

 

C) 2050

 

D) 2100

 

18) Which of the following activities would be consistent with the Millennium Development Goals?

 

A) help communities build technical and trade schools for boys to learn skills in high

 

demand

 

B) develop coal, gold, and silver mines wherever possible as quick sources of jobs

 

C) provide meals and mosquito nets for every child under the age of five

 

D) encourage the expansion of national militaries to provide income and technical training

 

19) If the Millennium Development goal to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger by 2015 is

 

achieved:

 

A) almost a billion people will still live in extreme poverty

 

B) no continent will have more than 10,000 people still hungry

 

C) fertility rates will decline to those of most European nations

 

D) the rural population of the world will nearly double

 

20) Which of the following represents the Millennium Development Goal that is least likely to be

 

achieved?

 

A) universal primary education

 

B) reduced child mortality

 

C) increased access to clean drinking water

 

D) decreased maternal childbirth deaths

 

21) Which of the following affects the greatest number of people in the developing world?

 

A) water availability

 

B) lack of primary schools for children

 

C) inadequate sanitation

 

D) no childhood immunization for measles

 

22) A rural farmer most likely obtains drinking water by drilling a deep well to use:

 

A) gravitational water that has percolated through soil and accumulated as groundwater

 

B) gravitational water that is retained by the soil and accumulated just above the water

 

table

 

C) capillary water found in surface waters, located above the water table

 

D) capillary water that has percolated through soil and accumulated below the

 

groundwater

 

23) About 99% of all liquid fresh water on Earth is found in:

 

A) lakes, including the Great Lakes of North America

 

B) rivers such as the Amazon, Nile, and Mississippi watersheds

 

C) underground aquifers

 

D) the upper few meters of topsoil

 

24) Which one of the following is fed by groundwater and often drained by seeps or springs?

 

A) lakes

 

B) aquifers

 

C) rivers

 

D) watersheds

 

25) In Costa Rica, a heavy downpour provides water that quickly evaporates or is absorbed and

 

released by the dense vegetation of the tropical rain forest. This is an example of a cycle

 

using:

 

A) condensation, evaporation, transpiration, and green water

 

B) condensation, precipitation, and gravitational water

 

C) evaporation, gravitational flow, and adiabatic cooling

 

D) precipitation, gravitational flow, and convection

 

26) Gutters and storm sewers in a city are most concerned with the:

 

A) evapotranspiration loop

 

B) surface runoff loop

 

C) precipitation loop

 

D) groundwater loop

 

27) Which one of the following soil orders is the most typical of drylands and deserts?

 

A) alfisols

 

B) oxisols

 

C) mollisols

 

D) aridisols

 

28) A hydric soil is one that:

 

A) is typical of wetlands and may contain peat

 

B) is unusually well suited for agriculture

 

C) is typical of tropical areas that receive abundant rainfall

 

D) was typical of the U.S. prairie states until the Dust Bowl of the 1930s

 

29) Which of the following would be best suited for planting crops such as corn or wheat?

 

A) an irrigated aridisol

 

B) a fertilized alfisol

 

C) a plowed oxisol

 

D) an irrigated gelisol

 

30) Most plants acquire their minerals from:

 

A) the recycling of nutrients from detritus

 

B) the precipitation of minerals from rainfall

 

C) the weathering of rock

 

D) dust storms that transport minerals into a region

 

31) Which of the following would be classified as “soil constraints”?

 

A) cold climate

 

B) moderate to heavy rainfall

 

C) poor drainage, salinity and high levels of aluminum

 

D) low erosion potential and high levels of phosphorus

 

32) One of the general concerns about the widespread use of transgenic organisms is the:

 

A) spread of these transgenic traits to other organisms

 

B) need to apply more pesticides to crops and plow the soil twice a year

 

C) reduced yields that result from using bioengineered organisms

 

D) pressure to bring more land into agricultural production

 

33) If you live in the United States, chances are that you have consumed some processed food

 

that includes bioengineered plants:

 

A) almost every day

 

B) at most once a month

 

C) perhaps once a year

 

D) once in your lifetime

 

34) Wood pellets are produced from the waste sawdust of lumber and paper mills. Home-heating

 

stoves burning these pellets can heat homes directly, instead of relying on other energy

 

sources. Heating your home with wood pellets is:

 

A) sustainable, less polluting, and more efficient than heating a home using electricity

 

from a coal-fired power plant

 

B) sustainable, much more polluting, and is about 30% more efficient than using

 

electricity from a coal-fired power plant

 

C) not sustainable but is less polluting and is about as efficient as using electricity from a

 

coal-fired power plant

 

D) not sustainable and actually pollutes more than using electricity from a coal-fired

 

power plant

 

35) Which one of the following energy sources is most likely to lead to thermal pollution?

 

A) a coal-fired power plant

 

B) a large field of windmills

 

C) a hydroelectric plant

 

D) a large field of solar cells

 

36) The future use of electricity to power personal transportation largely depends on:

 

A) more efficient turbogenerators

 

B) finding more fossil fuel supplies

 

C) low-cost, lightweight batteries that can store large amounts of power

 

D) the development of small turbogenerators for automobiles

 

37) Instead of only generating more electricity, rising energy demands may also be met by:

 

A) switching from natural gas to coal

 

B) switching from coal and natural gas to windmills and solar technologies

 

C) increasing the efficiency of energy consumption

 

D) using more nuclear power instead of fossil fuels

 

38) At present, the total number of long-term, commercial, below-ground nuclear waste

 

depository sites in use in the United States is:

 

A) 0

 

B) 7

 

C) 23

 

D) over 100

 

39) One of the major problems associated with long-term, high-level nuclear waste storage is:

 

A) selecting an environment that will remain stable for more than 10,000 years

 

B) determining a cost-effective way to shoot waste into space

 

C) figuring out how to contain the material so that it does not leak into the ocean

 

D) creating a secure environment to protect the material from terrorists

 

40) Yucca Mountain in the state of Nevada is:

 

A) the location of a leaky nuclear power plant that will cost billions of dollars to clean up

 

B) the only potential site for long-term commercial nuclear waste storage in the United

 

States, rejected for safety concerns in 2009

 

C) a military base that has accumulated low-level and high-level nuclear waste for many

 

decades

 

D) the site of a lake that received illegal dumping of nuclear waste in the 1960s

 

41) NIMBY is:

 

A) a publicly perceived risk of siting a toxic or nuclear waste disposal facility near their

 

homes

 

B) the U.S. federal agency that oversees nuclear power facilities

 

C) a U.N. organization in Geneva that directs the medical use of radioactive isotopes

 

D) the deciding factor in the approval of theYucca Mountain disposal site in Nevada

 

42) The Obama administration’s commission on nuclear power waste disposal recommended:

 

A) the process of site selection should be kept secret from the public

 

B) a private for-profit corporation should be engaged to choose and construct the facility

 

C) that the sites should be spread over dozens of freshwater lakes in the northern United

 

States

 

D) there is an immediate need to develop temporary geological storage sites until a

 

permanent one is located

 

43) New Generation III nuclear plants such as the AP1000 Advanced Passive Reactor features:

 

A) a combination of nuclear fusion and fission in a single design

 

B) a pressurized water system with many new passive safety features to prevent a LOCA

 

C) a design that uses a mechanical source of X-rays for power

 

D) designs based on the Fukushima Daiichi plant in Japan

 

44) In a photovoltaic system, an inverter is required to:

 

A) directly convert surplus electricity into heat

 

B) generate electricity from solar energy

 

C) connect the DC current of the solar panel to the AC current of an electrical grid

 

D) convert AC from the solar panel into DC of the grid

 

45) Around the world, photovoltaic technology is quickly being adopted to generate electricity in:

 

A) large scale commercial power plants and on rooftop home units

 

B) large scale commercial power plants but not yet on rooftop home units

 

C) rooftop home units but not large scale commercial power plants

 

D) small electronic applications such as calculators but not yet on rooftops or in

 

commercial power plants

 

46) The most costly aspect of photovoltaic technology is being addressed by:

 

A) inventing a way to convert alternating current to direct current

 

B) inventing a way to convert direct current to alternating current

 

C) finding a way to reduce the damaging effects of the sun on solar panels

 

D) new technologies that reduce the cost of manufacturing solar cells

 

47) Solar trough technology converts:

 

A) the ultraviolet light in sunlight directly into electricity

 

B) the heat of the sun into steam to drive a turbogenerator

 

C) sunlight into electricity which then produces steam heat

 

D) the direct current generated by photovoltaic cells into alternating current

 

48) Some milk becomes contaminated with mercury. If each of the following people consume 16

 

ounces of this contaminated milk each day for a month, who will most likely be impacted by

 

this poison?

 

A) an 82-year-old woman

 

B) a fetus inside a mother who drinks this contaminated milk

 

C) a 12-year-old girl

 

D) a 51-year-old man

 

49) A pharmacist asks a mother about a new prescription for an antibiotic, wanting to be sure that

 

the drug is for the mother. The pharmacist is most likely concerned because:

 

A) antibiotics do not typically work on children

 

B) most types of antibiotics prescribed to an adult will likely kill a child

 

C) a normal dosage for an adult can be toxic to a child

 

D) a normal child’s dosage may be toxic to an adult

 

50) You learn that an old friend has died from a disease that resulted from their lifelong exposure

 

to a substance. This loved one most likely died from:

 

A) whooping cough

 

B) a bacterial infection

 

C) cancer

 

D) malaria

 

51) Which of the following contains the greatest number of carcinogens?

 

A) a thick vanilla milkshake

 

B) a Twinkie snack

 

C) chewing tobacco

 

D) tap water from most cities in the United States

 

52) You examine an ice core sample from 10,000 years ago when global temperatures were

 

unusually high. Based upon past studies and insights from current GHG levels, we expect that

 

atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide:

 

A) and methane were unusually low

 

B) and methane were unusually high

 

C) were high but methane levels were low

 

D) were low but methane levels were high

 

53) In his movie, An Inconvenient Truth, Al Gore warns of increasing levels of carbon dioxide in

 

the atmosphere which suggest that:

 

A) methane levels will soon rise, destroying the ozone layer

 

B) global temperatures will also continue to rise

 

C) the oceans of the world are losing carbon dioxide

 

D) clouds are thinning and global precipitation is declining

 

54) Evidence from proxies indicate eight major oscillations in global temperatures over the past

 

800,000 years, most likely the result of:

 

A) rising and falling sea levels that greatly impact photosynthetic activity

 

B) variations in solar activity that produce different levels of radiation

 

C) Milankovitch cycles of periodic variations in Earth’s orbits around the sun

 

D) lunar cycles in which the moon orbits at different distances from the Earth

 

55) In general, temperatures along an ocean coastline vary less than temperatures 100 miles

 

inland. This moderation of temperatures along coastlines is because:

 

A) as the oceans evaporate it cools off the coastlines

 

B) the sun shines more intensely away from the ocean coastlines

 

C) ocean temperatures change more quickly than air temperatures

 

D) ocean temperatures do not change as quickly as air temperatures

 

56) In our world, something with the greatest heat capacity is able to:

 

A) evaporate the most water from its surface

 

B) retain its heat the longest

 

C) insulate the best

 

D) reflect the greatest amount of sunshine

 

57) If the sun suddenly stopped shining, where would be the best outdoor location to stay warm

 

with the least change in ambient temperature?

 

A) Atlanta, Georgia

 

B) on a beach in Hawaii

 

C) Kansas City, Kansas

 

D) the center of Brazil

 

58) Which one of the following principles of smart-growth will most likely result in less commuting

 

for all residents?

 

A) have states purchase open spaces

 

B) set physical boundaries on urban sprawl

 

C) build new homes and stores on existing abandoned or brownfield urban properties

 

D) promote the integration of homes, stores, light industry, and professional offices

 

59) According to the U.S. Sprawlometer, the most sprawling and congested area is:

 

A) New York

 

B) Los Angeles

 

C) Greensboro, NC

 

D) Riverside, CA

 

60) The Obama administration has moved to combat urban sprawl through the:

 

A) Clean Air Act

 

B) Clean Water Act

 

C) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act

 

D) ISTEA

 

61) Over the past 60 years, as people moved from U.S. cities to suburbs, the people that were left

 

behind in the cities were primarily:

 

A) older, poor people representing ethnic minorities

 

B) younger, wealthy people representing ethnic minorities

 

C) older and wealthy Caucasians

 

D) younger Caucasians

 

62) In a large city experiencing urban blight, we would be surprised to find:

 

A) a declining tax base

 

B) depreciating real estate

 

C) improving schools

 

D) increasing crime

 

63) The main financial problems for a city experiencing urban blight result from:

 

A) a declining tax base

 

B) increasing industrial growth

 

C) the need to build new schools

 

D) increasing use of public transportation

 

64) Buses and cars using fuel cells are:

 

A) not yet possible because the technology to safely store hydrogen is still not resolved

 

B) not yet available because the fuel cell generates unsafe levels of heat

 

C) still inefficient, largely because the fuel cells are large and heavy

 

D) already in use and ready for commercial production

 

65) Which one of the following produces the least air pollution?

 

A) an automobile burning hydrogen as a fuel

 

B) an automobile running on a hydrogen fuel cell

 

C) a Toyota Prius hybrid vehicle

 

D) a car running on natural gas

 

66) Automobiles with fuel cells can be more flexibly designed because they:

 

A) do not have wheels

 

B) have to be so large that there is extra room for passengers and accessories

 

C) do not have an engine fuel combustion compartment

 

D) do not have to be aerodynamically constructed to get better fuel mileage

 

67) A hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell uses:

 

A) hydrogen and water and generates electricity and oxygen

 

B) hydrogen and oxygen and generates electricity and water

 

C) carbon dioxide and water and generates electricity and hydrogen

 

D) hydrogen and water and generates electricity, oxygen, and carbon dioxide

 

68) The most promising immediate alternative to gasoline fueled vehicles in a time of global

 

climate change and increasing oil imports is powering vehicles using:

 

A) solar power

 

B) hydrogen as a fuel source

 

C) fuel cells using hydrogen

 

D) plug-in hybrid electric vehicles

 

69) Enhanced geothermal systems:

 

A) generate electricity using the heat of the earth to make steam

 

B) are routinely used in China to power automobiles

 

C) use the energy of the sun to boil water and generate electricity

 

D) use gravity to propel large turbines, which generate electricity

 

A home located next to a 5-acre pond (30 feet deep in the center) uses the steady temperature of the deep pond water for heat exchange. A closed system of water is piped from the home under­ground to deep regions of the pond and then back to the home. Inside the home, a heat exchange system extracts heat in the winter and removes heat from the home in the summer. This home relies completely on electricity, generated by burning coal at a distant power plant.

 

70) This home system illustrates the use of:

 

A) ecothermal energy

 

B) biomass fuels

 

C) geothermal energy

 

D) hydroelectric energy

 

71) Compared to heating and cooling this home using a standard heat pump system, this home’s

 

heating and cooling system will:

 

A) probably keep the pond from freezing over in the winter

 

B) probably cause ice to form on the pond in the early summer and fall

 

C) reduce the carbon footprint of the homeowners

 

D) not work if ice forms on the top of the pond

 

72) Harnessing the energy of tides to generate electricity is different than the force moving the

 

water in a hydroelectric power station at a dam because:

 

A) tidal energy uses turbines and a dam uses generators

 

B) tidal energy ultimately relies on moon’s gravity and hydroelectric power ultimately relies on the energy from the sun

 

C) tidal energy ultimately relies on ocean currents and hydroelectric power ultimately relies on the energy from the sun

 

D) tidal energy ultimately relies on the wind and hydroelectric power ultimately relies on the energy of rain

 

73) A tidal barrage would be used to generate electricity:

 

A) at the mouth of a bay

 

B) at the bottom of a large lake

 

C) near the tip of an ocean peninsula

 

D) in the open ocean

 

74) One of the least promising non-fossil fuel energy sources uses:

 

A) wind power

 

B) biomass energy

 

C) geothermal energy

 

D) thermal-energy conversion in the oceans

 

75) The future global energy demands may be met by developing sustainable energy resources and

 

also, most easily, by:

 

A) dramatically increasing oil and natural gas exploration

 

B) increasing our use of the abundant natural gas and coal resources

 

C) improving energy conservation and efficiency of current technology

 

D) limiting the use of energy in developing countries

 

76) In the past decade, the United States government has:

 

A) discouraged the use of alternate energy resources and promoted the use of fossil fuels

 

B) promoted but not invested in the development and use of sustainable energy resources

 

C) promoted and invested heavily through the Recovery Act of 2009 in the development

 

and use of sustainable energy resources

 

D) required the use of sustainable energy resources for more than 95% of our energy

 

demands by the year 2020

 

77) Responsible stewardship in the coming decades will require global energy policies that

 

promote:

 

A) both sustainability and technological efficiency

 

B) productivity and economic prosperity in developing nations

 

C) the development of abundant and inexpensive fossil fuels such as shale gas

 

D) additional exploration of shale oil and natural gas resources

 

78) Energy policies that promote the use of renewable-energy resources:

 

A) and oil and gas exploration are the most promising ways to address global climate

 

change

 

B) and efficiency will automatically reduce the generation of greenhouse gases

 

C) increase the demand for fossil fuels and require the importation of oil to most

 

countries

 

D) hurt the poorest families and discourage economic growth in developing countries

 

79) If some current trends and energy strategies continue and succeed over the next few decades,

 

in fifty years you might be able to say that you witnessed the shift from:

 

A) an energy-consuming economy to an energy-producing economy

 

B) a wind-driven economy to a solar economy

 

C) an unsustainable fossil-fuel-driven economy to a sustainable hydrogen economy

 

D) a renewable energy- driven economy to a clean-burning natural gas economy.

 

80) Which one of the following vehicles would generate the greatest amount of carbon tax?

 

A) a large hybrid-electric SUV that gets 31 miles per gallon

 

B) a small gas-powered car that gets 27 miles per gallon

 

C) an all-electric car that charges its batteries using solar power-generated electricity

 

D) a car powered by natural gas that gets 33 miles per gallon

 

81) The general U.S. government response to possible terrorism at nuclear power plants since

 

2001 has been:

 

A) limited to a few unenforced regulations

 

B) to convert nuclear facilities to military installations with state of the art security

 

C) enhanced security at plants and at spent fuel storage pools

 

D) nothing, because of budget cuts brought about by the 2008 recession

 

82) Security of nuclear resources and the safe storage of nuclear wastes:

 

A) remain a global challenge

 

B) have been improved by concentrating these in four secure locations throughout the

 

world

 

C) have now been addressed by UN task forces who guard resources that are subject to

 

terrorist attacks

 

D) remain a problem only outside of the United States and Canada

 

83) The more than 100 nuclear power plants planned 30-40 years ago were never built in large

 

part due to:

 

A) increasing incidents of terrorism directed against nuclear plants

 

B) decreased demand for electricity and increased costs of safety features in construction

 

C) pressing demand for electricity, which required simpler coal-fired power plants that

 

could be built faster

 

D) budget constraints stemming from the 2008 recession

 

84) The longevity of nuclear power plants has averaged about:

 

A) 20-25 years due to unexpectedly high levels of corrosion and embrittlement

 

B) 40-50 years, longer than imagined, because neutrons tend to stabilize the building

 

materials

 

C) 10 years, only about 25% of their expected life, due to the need for new

 

government-mandated safety designs

 

D) 40 years, as expected, due to routine maintenance and the replacement with new longer-lasting materials

 

85) Unlike corrosion, embrittlement results in the degradation of nuclear power plant materials

 

from the:

 

A) buildup up iron oxide after prolonged exposure to water

 

B) rapid expansion and contraction of super-heated and ice-cold water through most of

 

the pipes

 

C) use of highly corrosive saltwater throughout most of the water pipes

 

D) bombardment of materials by neutrons produced by fission

 

86) Nuclear power plants are especially expensive because they:

 

A) require the highest levels of security

 

B) usually cost as much to decommission as they did to build

 

C) have so many parts that must be coated in gold

 

D) are constructed of many thick layers of concrete
87) In the United States and many countries in Europe, there is renewed interest in nuclear power

 

plants because of:

 

A) a worldwide shortage of coal

 

B) the spotty availability of natural gas

 

C) concern about global climate change

 

D) the greatly reduced costs associated with generating electricity using nuclear power

 

88) In the near future, the number of nuclear power plants in the United States and throughout

 

the world will most likely:

 

A) decline

 

B) hold steady

 

C) increase

 

D) depend upon the price of oil

 

89) In Japan today, the greatest risk associated with the use of nuclear power is:

 

A) an earthquake and/or tsunami

 

B) a terrorist attack

 

C) the lack of sufficient nuclear fuel

 

D) the generation of mutations in nearby plants and animals

 

90) Compared to standard fission reactors, fast-neutron reactors are:

 

A) less expensive to build

 

B) less expensive to operate

 

C) more efficient in fuel use

 

D) safer, requiring less security

 

91) A much greater use of breeder or fast-neutron reactors would pose a greater safety risk

 

because fast-neutron reactors would generate greater amounts of:

 

A) heavy water, which can easily leak out into the local community near nuclear power plants

 

B) radon gas, which over many years can greatly increase the risk of cancer in the region surrounding a nuclear plant

 

C) plutonium, which is more easily used to construct nuclear weapons

 

D) lead, which is widely used in the creation of bullets and other ammunitions

 

92) Breeder or fast-neutron reactors generate more fuel than they use because:

 

A) these reactors capture the energy of extra neutrons released by 235U fissions

 

B) the Second Law of Thermodynamics does not apply to nuclear reactions

 

C) of solar collectors that invest the energy of the sun into new fuel

 

D) the heat that is usually released in standard reactors is mostly recaptured

 

93) Reprocessing of nuclear fuel:

 

A) requires the heavy use of lead and iron ore

 

B) eliminates the need for nuclear power plants

 

C) requires additional mining of uranium

 

D) reduces and reuses the stockpile of nuclear waste

 

94) The energy released from the sun and other stars comes from the:

 

A) fusion of helium into hydrogen

 

B) fusion of hydrogen into helium

 

C) fission of helium into hydrogen

 

D) fission of hydrogen into helium

 

95) Today, we are able to use nuclear fusion to:

 

A) power a hydrogen bomb

 

B) generate electricity efficiently

 

C) produce hydrogen for fuel cell cars

 

D) power jets and ships

 

96) Nuclear fusion reactions:

 

A) were used in the atomic bombs dropped on Japan in 1945

 

B) require conditions that are not yet cost-efficient for the generation of electricity

 

C) are widely used today in nuclear power plants

 

D) can only occur in the special conditions of the sun and stars

 

97) Over the past 50 years, interest in nuclear power:

 

A) rose, decreased, and now is increasing again

 

B) decreased, rose, and now is decreasing again

 

C) has remained high around the world

 

D) was high but then declined and continues to decline worldwide

 

98) Which of the following is a clear advantage in the use of nuclear power instead of fossil fuels?

 

A) Nuclear plants are cheaper to build than power plants that burn fossil fuels.

 

B) Nuclear power can be used today to power most forms of public transportation.

 

C) Nuclear power contributes less to global climate change.

 

D) Nuclear power generates fewer wastes with lower health risks.

 

99) Much of the recent increased interest in nuclear power is related to:

 

A) the limited supply of coal to generate electricity

 

B) the limited supply of natural gas to generate electricity

 

C) increasing costs of oil and gasoline

 

D) concerns about global climate change

 

100) Good stewardship of nuclear power is best promoted by:

 

A) government oversight and international cooperation

 

B) independent decisions of the countries of the world

 

C) oversight provided by the companies that own the facilities

 

D) limiting regulations and requirements

 

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