Home>Homework Answsers>Nursing homework helpQuestion 1 2 / 2 pointsWhich statement about confusion is true?Question options:a) Confusion is a disease process.b) Confusion is always temporary.c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.Question 2 0 / 2 pointsSondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?Question options:a) Meclizineb) Diphenhydraminec) Diamoxd) PromethazineQuestion 3 2 / 2 pointsThe hallmark of an absence seizure is:Question options:a) No activity at allb) A blank starec) Urine is usually voided involuntarilyd) The attack usually lasts several minutesQuestion 4 2 / 2 pointsHow often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?Question options:a) Every 3 monthsb) Every 6 monthsc) Annuallyd) Whenever there is a problemQuestion 5 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?Question options:a) A teenage maleb) A 65-year-old malec) A 25-year-old femaled) A 60-year-old femaleQuestion 6 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is a specific test to MS?Question options:a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)b) Computed tomography (CT) scanc) A lumbar punctured) There is no specific test.Question 7 2 / 2 pointsWhich drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?Question options:a) Cholinesterase inhibitorsb) Anxiolyticsc) Antidepressantsd) Atypical antipsychoticsQuestion 8 2 / 2 pointsWhich hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?Question options:a) Epidural hematomab) Subdural hematomac) Subarachnoid hematomad) Intraparenchymal hemorrhageQuestion 9 2 / 2 pointsWhich cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?Question options:a) CN Vb) CN VIIc) CN IXd) CN XQuestion 10 2 / 2 pointsWhich statement best describes a carotid bruit?Question options:a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.Question 11 2 / 2 pointsWhich patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?Question options:a) A female in her reproductive yearsb) A 40-year-old African American malec) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee dailyd) A 45-year-old male awakened at nightQuestion 12 2 / 2 pointsInattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?Question options:a) Dementiab) Alzheimer’s diseasec) Parkinson’s diseased) DeliriumQuestion 13 2 / 2 pointsWhich type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?Question options:a) Purulent meningitisb) Chronic meningitisc) Aseptic meningitisd) Herpes meningitisQuestion 14 2 / 2 pointsWhich is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?Question options:a) MRIb) CTc) Electroencephalogram (EEG)d) An initial lumbar punctureQuestion 15 2 / 2 pointsWhat is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?Question options:a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the bodyb) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the bodyc) A pain that is worse upon awakeningd) A lesion on the exterior ear canalQuestion 16 1 / 1 pointGabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?Question options:a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”Question 17 2 / 2 pointsSam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:Question options:a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”Question 18 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?Question options:a) Resting tremorb) Bradykinesiac) Rigidityd) Postural instabilityQuestion 19 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?Question options:a) Light sensitivityb) Pulsatile painc) Sound sensitivityd) Experiencing an auraQuestion 20 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?Question options:a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.Question 21 2 / 2 pointsCarotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?Question options:a) Greater than 25%b) Greater than 50%c) Greater than 75%d) Only for 100% occlusionQuestion 22 2 / 2 pointsWhat antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?Question options:a) Aspirinb) Ticlopidinec) Clopidogreld) Aspirin and clopidogrelQuestion 23 2 / 2 pointsWhich adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?Question options:a) MRIb) CTc) Cerebrospinal fluid analysisd) EEGQuestion 24 2 / 2 pointsWhich herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?Question options:a) Sam-eb) Saint John’s Wortc) Melatonind) Saw PalmettoQuestion 25 0 / 2 pointsWhich of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?Question options:a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cubeb) Determining if the patient can drive on the highwayc) Asking the patient about a news event from the current weekd) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home cleanQuestion 26 2 / 2 pointsAbout 90% of all headaches are?Question options:a) Tensionb) Migrainec) Clusterd) Without pathological causeQuestion 27 2 / 2 pointsWhich statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?Question options:a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.d) These persons may drive but never alone.Question 28 2 / 2 pointsJulie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?Question options:a) Glatiramer acetateb) Natalizumabc) Fingolimodd) GlucocorticoidsQuestion 29 2 / 2 pointsThe ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?Question options:a) Parkinson’s diseaseb) Alzheimer’s diseasec) A CVAd) Bell’s palsyQuestion 30 2 / 2 pointsA ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?Question options:a) Spinothalamic dysfunctionb) Ratchetingc) Cogwheelingd) Hand tremorsQuestion 31 2 / 2 pointsClinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?Question options:a) Guillain-Barré syndromeb) Parkinson’s diseasec) Alzheimer’s diseased) Huntington’s diseaseQuestion 32 1 / 1 pointWhich condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?Question options:a) Guillain-Barré syndromeb) Parkinson’s diseasec) Alzheimer’s diseased) DeliriumQuestion 33 2 / 2 pointsA score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:Question options:a) SLUMSb) MoCAc) FASTd) MMSEQuestion 34 2 / 2 pointsIntravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?Question options:a) 1 hourb) 3 hoursc) 6 hoursd) 12 hoursQuestion 35 2 / 2 pointsWhen administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?Question options:a) Tensionb) Migrainec) Clusterd) StressQuestion 36 2 / 2 pointsThe effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?Question options:a) Acetylcholineb) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)c) Dopamined) SerotoninQuestion 37 2 / 2 pointsThe criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:Question options:a) 1 monthb) 3 monthsc) 6 monthsd) 12 monthsQuestion 38 1 / 1 pointA patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?Question options:a) Pheochromocytomab) Hyperthyroidismc) Cardiac arrhythmiasd) All of the aboveQuestion 39 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?Question options:a) Benzodiazepinesb) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)c) Tricyclic antidepressantsd) Cognitive behavioral therapyQuestion 40 1 / 1 pointWhich of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?Question options:a) Hypersomnolenceb) Blunted feelingsc) Loss of interest in significant activitiesd) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the eventQuestion 41 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?Question options:a) Decrease in adrenal sizeb) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormonec) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormoned) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasoneQuestion 42 2 / 2 pointsThe clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?Question options:a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.Question 43 2 / 2 pointsAfter discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?Question options:a) 2 weeksb) 3 weeksc) 4 weeksd) 5 weeksQuestion 44 2 / 2 pointsIt is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?Question options:a) Before the initiation of treatmentb) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatmentc) When switching to a different medicationd) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medicationsQuestion 45 2 / 2 pointsA patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?Question options:a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.Question 46 1 / 1 pointAccording to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?Question options:a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptanceb) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depressionc) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptanced) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptanceQuestion 47 1 / 1 pointThe clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?Question options:a) Memory impairmentb) Sexual dysfunctionc) Dry mouthd) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.Question 48 2 / 2 pointsCocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?Question options:a) GABAb) Acetylcholinec) Dopamined) SerotoninQuestion 49 2 / 2 pointsWhat blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?Question options:a) 0.05b) 0.1c) 0.2d) 0.3Question 50 2 / 2 pointsRapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?Question options:a) Every 30 minutesb) Every 60 minutesc) Every 90 minutesd) Every 180 minutesQuestion 51 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?Question options:a) Hypercholesterolemiab) Hypermagnesmiac) Leukocytosisd) Decreased TRHQuestion 52 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?Question options:a) Sertralineb) Fluoxetinec) Citoprolamd) ImipramineQuestion 53 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?Question options:a) Liver functionb) Visionc) Growth parametersd) Renal functionQuestion 54 2 / 2 pointsIt is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?Question options:a) Depressionb) Obsessive-compulsive disorderc) Substance abused) PTSDQuestion 55 2 / 2 pointsWomen are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?Question options:a) 2 weeksb) 1 monthc) 3 monthsd) 6 monthsQuestion 56 2 / 2 pointsWhich is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?Question options:a) Depressionb) Anxietyc) Substance-related addictionsd) GamblingQuestion 57 1 / 1 pointWhat is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?Question options:a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attentionb) Personality or environmental problemsc) Environmental and psychosocial stressorsd) Global assessment of functioningQuestion 58 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?Question options:a) CAGEb) SANEc) SAD PERSONASd) DIGFASTQuestion 59 2 / 2 pointsAssessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?Question options:a) ADHDb) Bipolarc) Depressiond) AnxietyQuestion 60 1 / 1 pointBipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?Question options:a) Substance abuse and medication effectsb) Medical and neurological disordersc) Cluster B personality disorders and depressiond) Obsessive-compulsive disorderQuestion 61 1 / 1 pointThe use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 62 1 / 1 pointDepressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 63 1 / 1 pointWomen in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 64 1 / 1 pointAdults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 65 1 / 1 pointParkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 66 1 / 1 pointThe best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 67 1 / 1 pointA no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 68 1 / 1 pointDepression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 69 1 / 1 pointClozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 70 1 / 1 pointWhen combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 71 1 / 1 pointA 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?Question options:a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)b) Endometrial hyperplasiac) Vagismusd) Polycystic ovarian syndromeQuestion 72 2 / 2 pointsA 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?Question options:a) Ceftriaxoneb) Doxycyclinec) Acyclovird) MetronidazoleQuestion 73 1 / 1 pointA 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?Question options:a) Gonorrheab) HPVc) Chlamydiad) TrichomonasQuestion 74 1 / 1 pointA 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?Question options:a) Trichomonasb) Bacterial vaginosisc) HPVd) Herpes simplex virusQuestion 75 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?Question options:a) Metronidazoleb) Ceftriaxonec) Diflucand) DoxycyclineQuestion 76 1 / 1 pointA 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?Question options:a) Fluconazoleb) Estrogen vaginal creamc) Metronidazoled) DoxycyclineQuestion 77 2 / 2 pointsMandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:Question options:a) Filiform/digitate wartb) Dysplastic cervical lesionc) Condyloma acuminatad) KoilocytosisQuestion 78 0 / 2 pointsDuring a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?Question options:a) An enlarged rubbery glandb) A hard irregular glandc) A tender glandd) A boggy glandQuestion 79 2 / 2 pointsOf the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?Question options:a) Necrotizing fasciitisb) Periorbital cellulitisc) Erysipelasd) “Flesh-eating” cellulitisQuestion 80 2 / 2 pointsThe forced vital capacity is decreased in:Question options:a) Asthmab) Chronic bronchitisc) Emphysemad) Restrictive diseaseQuestion 81 2 / 2 pointsThe most common cause of CAP is?Question options:a) Streptococcus pneumoniaeb) Klebsiella pneumoniaec) Legionella pneumoniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosaQuestion 82 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?Question options:a) Asthmab) Increased white blood cellsc) Insulin resistanced) HyperactivityQuestion 83 2 / 2 pointsThe majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?Question options:a) IgAb) IgEc) IgGd) IgMQuestion 84 2 / 2 pointsA 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?Question options:a) The scrotum will be dark.b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.c) The scrotum will appear milky white.d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.Question 85 0 / 2 pointsDuring a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?Question options:a) An enlarged rubbery glandb) A hard irregular glandc) A tender glandd) A boggy glandQuestion 86 2 / 2 pointsA 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?Question options:a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.d) There is metastasis to distant organs.Question 87 1 / 1 pointA 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?Question options:a) Risk of osteoporosisb) May have hot flushesc) May have impotenced) All of the aboveQuestion 88 1 / 1 pointA 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?Question options:a) Testicular cancerb) Inguinal herniac) Varicoceled) All of the aboveQuestion 89 1 / 1 pointWhat is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?Question options:a) Radical orchidectomyb) Lumpectomyc) Radiation implantsd) All of the aboveQuestion 90 1 / 1 pointA patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?Question options:a) Every monthb) Every 3 to 4 monthsc) Every 6 to 12 monthsd) Every yearQuestion 91 2 / 2 pointsSimon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?Question options:a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”Question 92 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”Question options:a) An ulcerb) A fissurec) Lichenificationd) An excoriationQuestion 93 2 / 2 pointsA bulla is:Question options:a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameterb) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregularc) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluidd) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucentQuestion 94 1 / 1 pointA 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?Question options:a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.Question 95 1 / 1 pointOsteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 96 1 / 1 pointThe presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.Question options:a) Trueb) FalseQuestion 97 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?Question options:a) Prednisoneb) Metforminc) Synthroidd) CephalexinQuestion 98 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?Question options:a) A1C 7.0 on one occasionb) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasionsc) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasionsd) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasionQuestion 99 2 / 2 pointsWhich of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?Question options:a) Insulinb) Metforminc) Glucotrold) PrecoseQuestion 100 1 / 1 pointA 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?Question options:a) Anxiety disorderb) Pheochromocytomac) Psychosisd) All of the above7 years agoReport issue”MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017″…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCKNOT RATEDPurchase the answer to view itMN568Unit10Finallatest2017.docxplagiarism checkPurchase $19.99
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