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MIDTERM EXAM / NURS6550 MIDTERM EXAM

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

NURS 6550 Midterm Exam / NURS6550 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University

Walden University NURS 6550 Midterm Exam / Walden University NURS6550 Midterm Exam

1. The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) __________ is the least worrisome type.

2. Mrs. Miller is transported to the emergency department by paramedics. She is having profound, unremitting chest pain, is diaphoretic and pale. She has jugular venous distention and a widened pulse pressure. Suspecting ascending aortic aneurysm, the AGACNP order which test to confirm the diagnosis?

3. Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for rapid deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care placement?

4. A patient with anterior epistaxis has been treated with 20 minutes of direct pressure to the cartilaginous portion of the nose. Following pressure the patient is instructed to gently blow the nose. Expected findings in the patient who has been successfully treated include all of the following except a:

5. Kevin is a 14-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a fever of 102.5° F and significant right ear pain. He appears quite ill and says he feels nauseous. Otoscopic evaluation reveals pain to palpation, a very erythematous and bulging tympanic membrane with bullous myringitis. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be selected to cover:

6. P.M. is a 71-year-old gay male patient who presents as an outpatient for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. The diagnostic evaluation ultimately supports a diagnosis of community acquired pneumonia. The AGACNP appreciates right middle lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Pending sputum cultures, empiric antibiotic therapy must be initiated to cover which organism?

7. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for vascular dementia?

8. J.R. is a 55-year-old male who presents for a commercial driver’s license physical examination with a blood pressure of 170/102 mm Hg. He has no medical history and is without complaint. Which of the following findings constitutes hypertensive urgency?

9. Because of the commonly recognized adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics, annual laboratory assessment for patients taking these medications should include a:

10. K.R. presents for an evaluation of eye discomfort. He works in a fabricating shop for a custom automobile restoration company and while working he felt like something flew into his eye. He was wearing eye protection at the time but still has the sensation that something is there. Physical examination is significant for some tearing and he reports a persistent sense of something in his eye. Which of the following is not indicated in the diagnostic evaluation?

11. D.E. is a 41-year-old female who had lumbar surgery two days ago to repair a ruptured nucleus pulposus. She has been doing well postoperatively but today is complaining of resting fatigue and some shortness of breath at rest. In ruling out a pulmonary embolus the AGACNP first orders a:

12. Mr. Nixon is being treated with unfractionated heparin infusion for acute pulmonary embolus. In order to avoid a potentially fatal complication of heparin infusion, the AGACNP monitors:

13. Differentiating vertigo from near-syncope and ataxia is one of the goals of history-taking when a patient presents as “dizzy.” The AGACP knows that vertigo is the problem when the patient reports the primary symptom as:

14. Mr. Banks has been admitted for surgical resection of a metastatic tumor, during surgery it is discovered that he has widespread, diffuse metastasis throughout the abdomen. Surgery is no longer an option, and his oncologist says that chemotherapy is unlikely to produce any meaningful benefit. Mr. Banks is concerned that his sons will not support a transfer to comfort care. The AGACNP advises that he:

15. Mr. Wilkerson is a 77-year-old male who is being evaluated and treated for his cardiogenic pain. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature of 99.1° F, pulse of 100 bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg. A 12-lead ECG reveals deep ST segment depression in leads V3-V6. The AGACNP recognizes which of the following as a contraindication to rTPA therapy?

16. A 71-year-old patient is recovering from a particularly severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been in the hospital for almost two weeks and was on mechanical ventilation for 7 days. While discussing his discharge plan he tells you that he is really going to quit smoking this time. He acknowledges that he has been “sneaking” cigarettes in the hospital for two days, but he has established a timeline to decrease the number of cigarettes daily. According to his plan his last cigarette will be the last day of the month. This patient’s behavior is consistent with which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?

17. While assessing a patient with a known psychiatric history, the AGACNP knows that the primary difference between a psychotic and neurotic disorders is:

18. L.T. is an 85-year-old male who is admitted for evaluation of profound diarrhea that has produced significant dehydration. He also complains of being very tired lately, and feeling like he is going to vomit all of the time. His vital signs are significant for a pulse of 41 b.p.m. and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. A gastrointestinal evaluation including stool for blood, white blood cells, and ova and parasites is negative. He insists that he has not started any new medications or made any diet changes; the only thing new is that he got new eye drops for his glaucoma. The AGACNP correctly assumes that his new eye drops are:

19. Janice is a 19-year-old female who presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She is pale, diaphoretic, agitated, and convinced she is having a stroke. Her vital signs include a temperature of 98.9° F, pulse of 114 beats per minute, respirations of 32 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/74 mm Hg. Diagnostic evaluation is negative and Janice is diagnosed with an acute panic attack. The initial treatment of choice is:

20. Lorraine is a 41-year-old female who presents for an asthma follow-up visit. She says she feels very well, has almost no daytime symptoms, and is using her inhaled corticosteroid medication daily as prescribed. Her PEFR is 85% of her personal best. The best approach to this patient is to:

21. Mr. Owen is a 37-year-old patient who has been admitted for surgical resection of a malignant tumor in his lung. His physical recovery has been uneventful and he is being prepared for discharge. While discussing his ongoing cancer therapy with Mr. Owen, the AGACNP determines that he has experienced persistent, excessive anxiety and worry almost every day for more than one year. What other aspect of Mr. Owen’s psychosocial history would be required to made a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?

22. Kevin T. is a 49-year-old male who is being discharged after hospitalization for an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. This is his first hospitalization and his first chronic medical diagnosis. Aside from his elevated cardiac isoenzymes and troponins, his laboratory profile was essentially within normal limits. The only apparent cardiac risk factor is an LDL cholesterol of 200 mg/dL. Initiating an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is an example of which level of prevention for Kevin?

23. You are evaluating a patient who has been admitted to the emergency room after being arrested for starting a fight in a local sports’ bar. The patient is now being cooperative, but reports that he has been in treatment for PTSD for months. He has been prescribed fluoxetine but has not noticed any improvement in symptoms, and now has been arrested for violence. The AGACNP knows that the next step in medication management is likely to include:

24. Mrs. Salter is an 81-year-old lady who presents for evaluation of near-syncopal episodes. Her 12-lead ECG, complete blood count, and comprehensive metabolic panel are all essentially normal. A urinalysis shows some trace protein but is otherwise normal. A 24-hour rhythm monitor demonstrates rare premature ventricular contractions. Mrs. Salter has been in good health and had her first episode at her aerobics class. She only gets lightheaded when she exerts herself. Her heart auscultates for a grade III/VI systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. The AGACP considers that the likely cause of the syncope is:

25. Who among the following patients is at greatest risk for a pulmonary embolus?

26. Mrs. Birdsong is an 85-year-old female who has been admitted for surgical repair of a hip fracture. She is in remarkably good spirits and is quite talkative. She readily answers all of the questions on her intake assessment, and readily acknowledges information provided during her room orientation. Later while talking with the patient’s son the AGACNP learns that the patient has had significant cognitive impairment for a few years. She has virtually no short term memory, but compensates by confabulating. Her son says she is generally very happy as long as there is no change in her day to day routine. This history is most consistent with which form of dementia?

27. Mrs. Radovich is an 80-year-old female with a variety of chronic medical conditions which are reasonably well controlled. She generally enjoys a good quality of life and is active with her family. Today her only concern is that she is having problems with her vision. She notices that while trying to look at pictures of her great grandchildren she can’t seem to focus on their faces. She also reports increased trouble reading—she cannot seem to see the words that she is looking at, and her reading glasses do not help. Further evaluation of Mrs. Radovich should include assessment with:

28. R.J. is a 55-year-old female who presents with acute onset left sided facial pain and an inability to move the left side of her face. She cannot smile, raise her eyebrow or even close her left eye, The immediate approach to this patient should include:

29. A 78-year-old male present for a physical examination. He has no discomfort or complaints other than a general decrease in vision, but it helps when he puts things under a bright light to read. He admits that while driving at night the streetlights appear to be a bit distorted and his night vision is pretty poor. Given the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP expects which of the following physical findings?

30. Jason is a 46-year-old male who is being managed for sepsis. He has HIV/AIDS and has had a prolonged hospitalization characterized by a variety of complications. He was extubated 3 days ago but continues gastric decompression with a nasogastric tube(NGT), total parenteral nutrition and antibiotic therapy via a central venous catheter, and urinary drainage via a Foley catheter. He continues to demonstrate consistent low grade fevers but all points of insertion of his tubes are normal to inspection, a chest radiograph demonstrates improvement of his pneumonia, and his urinalysis shows no bacteria, leukocytes, or nitrites. The AGACNP should next order:

31. The interpretation of a chest radiography should follow a systematic approach to ensure that all vital structures are evaluated and important clinical findings are not missed. The last thing to be assessed when looking at chest radiography should be the _____________:

32. The Short Confusion Assessment Method (Short-CAM) is a widely used four item tool that assesses delirium in the hospitalized patient. It includes observation of all of the following except:

33. Ms. Yang has been hospitalized for 5 days for the management of a gastrointestinal bleeding. She appears to have stabilized hemodynamically, but today she had a temperature of 101.9° F and chest radiography demonstrates a diagnosis of pneumonia. The AGACNP knows that the diagnostic evaluation for hospital acquired pneumonia for all patients must include:

34. Most psychosocial theories of aging center around the core concept that successful aging requires acceptance of a series of changes or losses that predictably occur later in the life span. The theory that specifically addresses coming to terms with the inevitability of death is known as:

35. All of the following conditions are risk factors for pulmonary embolus except:

36. A patient is diagnosed with acute descending aortic aneurysm and hypertension should be immediately started on which medication pending surgical evaluation?

37. Jason is a 27-year-old with a long history of intermittently controlled asthma. He is currently prescribed Advair daily with albuterol as needed for symptoms. Today he presents to the emergency department with cough and wheezing and difficulty catching his breath. His FEV1 is 51% at the time of presentation. He is given alternating albuterol and ipratropium nebulizer treatments along with oral prednisone. After one hour his FEV1 has increased 65%. The appropriate disposition for Jason at this point is:

38. A patient in the intensive care unit suddenly becomes tachypneic and dyspneic. The physical examination reveals pale, cool, clammy skin and an arterial blood gas demonstrates hypocapnea and hypoxia. Pulmonary artery pressure demonstrates a pattern consistent with obstructive shock. The AGACNP knows that which of the following causes of this presentation is most likely?

39. Mr. Bowers is an 81-year-old male who is being terminally extubated at the request of his family due to the presence of a large subdural hematoma with a shift; the patient is not initiating respirations on his own and the prognosis is very poor. After he is extubated he begins to initiate his own respirations and 24 hours later has not expired yet. The decision is made to leave him in the hospital on a general medical floor rather than transfer to another facility for hospice. Which of the following is the best indicator that the patient’s death is imminent?

40. A patient is newly admitted to your service for open reduction and internal fixation of the left hip. She seems very down, and as you talk with her you realize that her mood is not just related to her hip fracture. Which of the following symptoms would not be consistent with major depressive disorder?

41. “C” is the correct answer. Alzheimer’s dementia is statistically the most common form of dementia and is characterized by a long trajectory that progresses to include confabulation. Additionally, patients with this form of dementia are very reliant upon routine and may be distressed when it is disrupted. “A” is not correct; Lewy body dementia characteristically progresses much more quickly and produces an angry demeanor. “B” is incorrect because vascular dementia typically produces a more depressive affect and is not characterized by confabulation; additionally, patients with vascular dementia often have a medical history consistent with vascular risk factors. “D” is not correct as there is no apparent history of Parkinson’s disease.

42. What is the primary purpose of using eye ointments or lubricants to patients under general anesthesia, on paralytics, or in long-term comatose states?

43. When reading a 12-lead electrocardiogram, the AGACNP knows that all 12 leads are required to provide:

44. A 49-year-old male presents for evaluation of chest tightness. It has happened before, but he just ignored it and it went away. Today he just could not ignore it anymore. He has always enjoyed good health and says he has never been told that he has any chronic medical conditions like high blood pressure or diabetes. A 12-lead ECG demonstrates changes consistent with inferior wall ischemia. Both his symptoms and inferior wall changes improve with the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin. Consistent with ACS protocol, this patient’s assessment is consistent with:

45. Mr. Rosen is a 49-year-old male who is being managed for an acute myocardial infarction. He develops significant shortness of breath at rest and coarse rales 2/3 up bilaterally. The AGACNP suspects acute pulmonary edema due to papillary muscle rupture and acute mitral valve regurgitation. Which physical finding would support this finding?

46. A patient with minor head trauma presents for evaluation. Which of the following findings should be followed up with a CT scan to rule out orbital fracture?

47. Mrs. Forbes is a 69-year-old lady being discharged from the hospital after complications following a cosmetic surgical procedure. She is basically in good health. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine daily, and mild osteoarthritis which is controlled with only prn nonsteroidal use. Her blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that in accordance with the most current guidelines published in JNC 8 the appropriate action is to:

48. When assessing driver safety in the older adult, the AGACNP considers that:

49. The nursing staff calls to tell you that your 81-year-old male patient is having an acute change in mental status. He is a basically healthy man who was admitted three days ago for inpatient antibiotic management of community acquired pneumonia. His daughter is at the bedside and she is very distraught because she has never seen him like this. She is asking for medication to make him stop acting disoriented. Upon examination the patient is lying in bed, appears calm and happy, but does not recognize his daughter as anyone he knows. He is talking as if he is at home and has company. The AGACNP instructs the daughter that:

50. While discharging a patient following her myocardial infarction, you offer some patient education about medically supervised cardiac rehabilitation. The patient expresses fear of rehab because she was on her treadmill when she had her infarction and now she is afraid of making it happen again. She doesn’t understand how the rehab can force her to exercise her heart but not make her have another cardiac event. The AGACNP explains that the patient will be monitored and that her goal heart rate will be:

51. During physical examination of a 51-year-old African-American female you appreciate a decrease in her peripheral vision. The rest of her eye examination is within normal limits and she is symptom free. This presentation is consistent with:

52. Mr. Moffett is a 66-year-old male with a long history of lower extremity edema. All other causes of lower extremity edema have been ruled out and his overall symptom presentation and history are strongly supportive of chronic venous insufficiency. Today he presents with increased itching of both lower legs. Physical exam reveals 2-3+ pitting edema and trophic hyperpigmentation. The AGACNP know that treatment should include:

53. L.R. is an 84-year-old female patient being treated for pneumonia. Her condition is deteriorating despite aggressive broad spectrum antipseudomonal cephalosporin antibiotic therapy. Induced sputum culture reveals heavy growth of Legionella pneumophilia. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be adjusted to include coverage with:

54. The AGACNP is treating a patient with a corneal abrasion. The patient has a clear recollection of the mechanism of injury—she was scratched in the eye earlier today with her 18-month-old daughter’s fingernail. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of this patient’s abrasion?

55. M.T. is a 41-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit. He was admitted to the hospital in septic shock and has been aggressively managed with broad spectrum antibiotics. He has become progressively hypoxemic and the last arterial blood gas revealed a paO2 of 58 mm Hg. Chest radiography reveals a “white out” pattern bilaterally. The patient is intubated and ventilated. The AGACNP knows that appropriate management must include:

56. Teenagers and adults with acute otitis media can often be treated with “watchful waiting” given the high incidence of spontaneous resolution and low risk of poor outcomes. Which of the following is an absolute indication to begin antibiotic therapy at the time of diagnosis?

57. Mr. Bowers is on mechanical ventilation for respiratory support through an episode of septic pneumonia. Due the extensive lobar consolidation it was very difficult to keep Mr. Bowers oxygenated and he required very high FIO2s and PEEP. The AGACNP knows that the primary concern with FIO2s > 60% is:

58. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) occurs when an overwhelming systemic insult results in which maladaptive physiologic response?

59. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by which abnormality of ventilation and perfusion?

60. George Schulz is a 69-year-old male who presents for evaluation of acute foot pain. It is so painful that he cannot walk on it without assistance. At first he denies any significant medical history, but then reveals that he has been diagnosed with dyslipidemia and hypertension but stopped taking his medications because he couldn’t afford it. Pulses are not palpable but are audible by Doppler. The extremity is pale and shiny with decreased hair growth, suspecting peripheral arterial disease, the AGACNP expects which additional finding?

61. G.T. is a 40-year-old male who is under your case for long term management of secondary osteoarthritis. Today he asks if he can take a medication for anxiety. Further assessment reveals that he is in a relationship that has been very stressful; his girlfriend wants very much to get married and start a family, and he does not. He admits that he no longer feels they are compatible and acknowledges that he needs to end this relationship. He is sure that this is the source of his anxiety. The best approach would be to:

62. During the physical examination of a 31-year-old female, the AGACNP appreciates a bifurcate uvula. The most appropriate action would be to:

63. During routine immigration screening a 29-year-old male patient from Mexico has a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test at 17 mm induration. He reports no known history of tuberculosis (TB) infection or exposure, or vaccination with the BCG vaccine. Chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of TB exposure. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate next step is to:

64. Clinical diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) include all of the following except:

65. While managing a patient in acute pulmonary edema, the AGACNP monitors the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. When this pressure falls below 12 mm Hg it suggests that:

66. All of the following are important elements of the immediate management of penetrating eye injury except:

67. While evaluating a patient with diastolic failure due to a long history of uncontrolled hemochromatosis, the AGACNP appreciates an extra heart sound just before the S1 heart sound. This sound is most likely a(n):

68. Secondary hypertension occurs in approximately 10% of all patients with hypertension, and requires management of the underlying problem in order to eliminate the cause. Which of the following is not a secondary cause of hypertension?

69. L.M, is a 26-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset vertigo this morning. He describes a strong sense of the room spinning and can barely walk without feeling nauseous. The vertigo is reproducible when his neck is rotated suddenly left or right. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is not indicated?

70. A 36-year-old female presents complaining of left leg swelling. She describes the onset as acute over the last day or two, and says it feels “tight and throbbing.” She denies any significant medical history and says the only medication she takes is oral contraception, which she has taken since she was 15 years old. The AGACNP first orders:

71. The primary neurotransmitter implicated in post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is:

72. Mr. Avila is an 82-year-old male being counseled about the risks and benefits of his upcoming abdominal surgery. While considering risk factors for atelectasis, pneumonia and other pulmonary complications, the AGACNP advises that the greatest risk comes from:

73. The female AGACNP is practicing with a cardiology group and sees patients one day a week in the outpatient office. A 49-year-old female presents for follow-up after her admission for infective endocarditis. She is recovering well, and says that she is going to be more proactive about her health. She admits to not having had any of her regular health screenings for years, and asks if she can have her Pap performed at this office. The AGACNP:

74. The AGACNP is seeing a patient who was transferred from the correctional facility for evaluation. He has a profound purulent discharge from his right eye. The conjunctive is erythematous and there is mild photosensitivity. The inmate denies any real eye pain, just says that it is extremely uncomfortable. Treatment for this patient is likely to include:

75. Ms. Ewing is a 78-year-old female who lives in a long term care facility because her dementia has progressed to the point at which her family cannot provide the necessary safety measures at home. In addition to her absent short term memory she has developed some affective changes and most recently is demonstrating sexual disinhibition. While considering management options, the AGACNP knows that all of the following are medications are options for the management of disinhibition except:

76. A patient recently had a nasal packing inserted for management of refractory epistaxis. One week later he presents with fatigue, a headache “inside of his nose” and a feeling generally unwell. The AGACNP considers:

77. A 55-year-old female patient presents with a fever of 103.4° F. She was treated approximately 10 days ago at urgent care for a sinus infection, but two days ago the right side of her fact started to hurt, and today she has significant swelling of the right orbit and eyelid. The eyelid is very edematous and there is purulent drainage noted. The priority of care for this patient begins with:

78. Which of the following is the best indicator that pulmonary rehabilitation has been successful in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

79. Mrs. Marriott is being discharged to home after being managed for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She is currently feeling well but her ejection fraction after optimal diuresis and fluid management is 29%. The AGACNP knows that her discharge medications must include:

80. Which of the following is an accurate statement with respect to the assessment of delirium in the geriatric patient?

81. Mrs. Warner is a 57-year-old female who presents with unplanned weight loss. Chest radiography reveals diffuse hyperlucency of the left lung and in the lower half of the right lung. The AGACNP knows that the differential diagnosis for hyperlucency include all of the following except:

82. When evaluating a patient with epistaxis, which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of a more serious etiology and posterior packing?

83. R.M. is a 15-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with his mother. Mom says he has been complaining that his throat hurts so badly he cannot even swallow saliva. According to Mom R.M. is not the type to complain, but he is in so much pain with his throat he is almost crying. He has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications. He has no allergies of which his mother is aware. Upon physical examination he is febrile with a temperature of 102.4° F and he is a bit tachycardic, but other vital signs or normal. Inspection of the throat is basically unremarkable—the AGACNP does not appreciate any abscesses, edema, or exudate; there may be some slight erythema. The AGACNP becomes suspicious that the patient:

84. Mr. Stossel is a 66-year-old male patient who was admitted for management of acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. Over a period of hours he has developed acute shortness of breath, coarse rales to auscultation, and Kerley B lines on chest radiography. Arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.34, pCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and paO2 of 59 mm Hg. The AGACNP anticipates which of the following findings on physical examination?

85. According to the revised criteria in DSM-V, the primary difference between panic attacks and panic disorder is that:

86. Mr. Wilson is a 71-year-old male who has been treated with prn short acting anticholinergics for his COPD. Last week he developed an exacerbation that required a 4 day hospitalization for support and stabilization. He was discharged on a five day course of prednisone and now presents for follow-up. The AGACNP knows that his outpatient medication regimen should be adjusted to include:

87.

What is the primary difference in patient management between high risk non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and the low risk non-ST elevation MI patient?

88.

J.T. is a 26-year-old female patient being evaluated for eye discharge. She says that for the last few days she has developed this sticky, string-like discharge in both eyes. She denies any pain or visual changes, but does admit to a sense of “something in my eyes” and that her eyes itch a lot. Physical examination reveals injected conjunctiva, rope-like discharge bilaterally; pupil response is equal and brisk in both eyes. Which factor in the patient’s history would be supportive of the most likely diagnosis?

89.

The pathophysiology of endogenous depression is best described as

90.

The diagnostic study most supportive of a diagnosis of pericarditis is:

91.

A 31-year-old male presents to urgent care because he has something in his eye. He was changing the oil under his car and says that something dropped into his eye. He is not having any pain, in fact he waited a day before coming in because he thought it would work itself out. Physical exam reveals a black 1 mm foreign body visible on the corneal surface. The most appropriate intervention is to:

92.

A patient with pericarditis is most appropriately treated with:

93.

Which of the following is not a risk factor for thoracic aneurysm?

94.

The “MONA” acronym provides guidance for immediate interventions in the patient with:

95.

Mr. Sloane is a 36-year-old male patient who presents for treatment of eye pain. He has no significant medical history and does not take any daily or over-the-counter medications. His only recent history is nighttime allergies for which he takes occasional diphenhydramine with good relief. He has had some throbbing in his eye for the last few days on and off but just ignored it; today he says it is flat out painful and he had to come to the emergency department. The eye is throbbing and painful, and he reports generalized decreased vision. The pupil is dilated to 5 mm and non-reactive to light. The eye conjunctiva is reddened. The next step in the diagnostic evaluation should be:

96.

The AGACNP counsels a patient with recurrent epistaxis that the most common cause of nose bleeding is

97.

The geriatric depression scale (GDS) is a commonly used tool to diagnose depression in the elderly population. It comes in a variety of forms for maximal utility. When administering the geriatric depression scale to patients, the AGACNP recognizes that it is extremely important to:

98.

Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is a significant problem impacting morbidity, mortality and the cost of inpatient health care. Data-supported mechanisms to reduce the risk for VAP include all of the following except:

99.

Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in the patient having an acute myocardial infarction include all of the following except:

100.

Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to risk for or occurrence of elder abuse?

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Nursing homework help

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Respond to  your  colleagues by recommending strategies to overcome the challenges your  colleagues have identified. Support your recommendation with  evidence-based literature and/or your own experiences with clients.

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Cognitive  behavior therapy involves talk therapy and has proven to be an  effective approach to deal with various issues related to for example  mental issues. Cognitive behavior therapy is different in group and  family settings. In groups, more than one patient is involved for  treatment and they usually not related (Fehr, 2014). Group  psychotherapy helps people who would like to improve their ability to  cope with problems. While in individual therapy the therapist meets with  only the patients and families, in group therapy the meeting is with a  whole group and one or more therapists. Group therapy helps people learn  about themselves and improve their interpersonal relationships.  In such context various therapeutic factors are offered which include  the development of socialization techniques, imparting information,  altruism, imitative behavior, universality, instillation of hope, among  others. The therapy is effective in addressing such issues as  depression, obesity, panic, work in specific populations, and eating  disorders. However, cooperation becomes an issue and the individuals may  quit. In family settings, individuals that are closely related come  together for treatment and support (Dattilio, & Epstein, 2016). This  may involve the family members supporting. In search context  communication skill and collaboration becomes effective. Also,  confidence is built while at the same time improving cohesion and  support.

An  example of group therapy was seen when a group of people with different  goals and issues came together for training and the approaches used  were different from those in family settings. Group therapy can benefit  many different people, from those having difficulties with interpersonal  relationships as adolescents with self-esteem problem and depression,  for example, group therapy teaches socialization skills needed to help  function in environments outside the home. Several teens slide into  isolation and loneliness due to their emotional and social issues. Group  therapy activities are designed to help them realize that they are not  alone in facing these challenges. Besides, it helps them realize the  value of emotional support that facilitates healing. Mindful speaking is  a great therapeutic activity that focuses on communication and  mindfulness in participants. These two skills are essential for the  management of emotions in teens. This activity allows team members to  know each other’s strengths and ways to inculcate them. Positive  responses from each other will also help them heal. Another example is  seen from a single parent who supported his son who had a separation  anxiety disorder. through the proper training of the boy and the parent,  they obtained positive outcomes.

Some  of the challenges that may be encountered include lack of cohesion due  to limited engagement and even collaboration. This challenge is often  common in most group therapies due to differences among the members and  leadership related issues. There is also the difficulty in meeting the  intended goals due to the complexity of schedules and the issues to be  addressed. This is associated with time clashes among the individuals  and the varying degrees of issues among the individuals.  An example was  seen when a 21 male participant refused to engage in a group session  because he did not feel safe sharing any information with other  strangers. This further resulted in extending the session as more time  was spent in trying to make the participant more comfortable.  Group  therapy offers the opportunity to both receive support from others and  to give support to others. Both of these notions are important in  treatment. Receiving support from others is part of the bonding or  therapeutic alliance that occurs in groups, whereas giving support to  others allows for growth and learning.Group therapy provides a broad safety net for individuals who may otherwise be hesitant to discuss their feelings.

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cultural diversity

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

HU 140 Cultural Diversity Unit 3 Template

 

 

Communication: The Journey of Message

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Image result for international culture

 

 

 

 

 

We have all had moments where communication meant the difference between resolving an issue and creating one. Describe an event or incident where being an active listener allowed you to calm a situation. Here are some questions to consider:

· What ways did dialogue contribute to diffusing the situation?

· Did you or the other people involved demonstrate body language cues that signaled the situation was escalating or diminishing?

· How did the situation resolve?

· If you could revisit that situation now, what would you change?

 

Click here to share your story!

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Effective Communication in Art

 

Click on the picture icon to the right and insert images of art (any visual representation) that communicates new understanding of diversity issues. This can be anything from a multi-racial family to the physically active elderly sky diving or water skiing (defying the stereotypes on aging). Click on the word “Text” and describe the message being communicated and explain why some people might miss or ignore this message. If necessary, reference the image on the References page.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Listening to the Voiceless

Go to this YouTube channel and view three or more interviews with the homeless that are not from your race/ethnicity/gender group. Select one that you feel created the most effective message to help yourself and others understand the unique issues facing the homeless population. Once you select your video, click on ‘share,’ then click on ’embed,’ and finally click on ‘copy’ found at the lower right.

Next, click inside the textbox below, then click on the “Insert” menu and select “Online Video” from the menu. Select the option where you ‘paste’ the embed code. If necessary, reference the video on the References page.

 

 

Click here

 

 

 

 

 

Address the following questions:

 

1. What feelings or emotions did the video draw out in you? What made you connect to the person being interviewed?

2. What stereotypes did you find yourself falling into initially?

3. How might this video or others like it bring an end to othering of the homeless?

 

 

Click here

 

 

 

 

Literature and Identity Power

 

 

Literature has been used over the centuries in assimilating cultures and establishing cultures, but in more modern times it has become an effective tool to bring ‘voice’ to the marginalized and underrepresented. One example is Amy Tan, an Asian American writer of the novel, The Joy Luck Club, and many others. Her essays often focus on Identity Power in ways that are inclusive to all groups which is one reason her work has been so effective. Click on this link and read her essay “Mother Tongue.” In the textbox below address the following questions:

 

1. How does the essay bring a new perspective to the idea of language?

2. In what ways could you directly relate to her explanation of ‘many Englishes?’

3. How does Amy Tan expose the need for effective listening?

 

 

 

Click here

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Reflections

 

Now that you have had the opportunity to learn more about the importance of listening as a first step in effective communication among all groups, please address the following to complete your Unit 3 template.

1. The headlines are filled with injustices each and every day, and it seems nothing is being done to combat the negative communication in modern society. Think of an issue that directly impacts your immediate community and create a short dialogue to put communication within that community on a positive track.

Click here

 

 

 

2. Take a few moments to imagine you were one of the ‘Invisible People’ being interviewed. What would your message be to the audience? How might you say to help bring about an effective dialogue that begins the process of restoring the dignity of those who are financially disabled?

 

Click here

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Reference page

Reference your video or any other sources used here.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Are you listening? Am I listening?

 

 

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INFO321 MS Access Assignment

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Access Independent Challenge 3:

a) Start Access and open the LakeHomes-6.accdb database from the location where you store your Data Files, then enable the content if prompted.

b) In Query Design View, create a query with the following fields in the following order:

a. AgencyName from the Agencies table

b. RFirst and RLast from the Realtors table

c. SqFt and Asking from the Listing table

c) Sort the records in descending order by the SqFt field.

d) Save the query BySqFt, view the datasheet, enter your last name (Sierra) instead of Schwartz for the listing with the largest SqFt value.

e) In Query Design View, modify the BySqFt query by creating a calculated field that determines price per square foot. The new calculated field’s name should be PerSqFt, and the expression should be the asking price divided by the square foot field, or [Asking]/[SqFt].

f) Remove any former sort orders, sort the records in descending order based on the PerSqFt calculated field, and view the datasheet. Save and close the BySqFt query. ##### means the data is too wide to display in the column. You can make the data narrower and also align it by applying a Currency format.

g) Reopen the BySqFt query in Query Design View, right-click the calculated PerSqFt field, click Properties, then change the Format property to Currency. View the datasheet then save and close the BySqFt query.

h) Copy and paste the BySqFt query as CostSummary.

i) In Design View of the CostSummary query, delete the RFirst, RLast and SqFt fields.

j) View the datasheet, change the Big Cedar Realtors agency name to your last name (Sierra) followed by Realtors.

k) In Design View, add the Total tow, then sum the Asking field and use the Avg (average) aggregate function for the PerSqFt calculated field.

l) In Datasheet Ciew, add the Total row and display the sum of the SumOfAsking field. Widen all columns as needed, save and close it.

m) Close the LakeHomes-6.accdb database, then exit access.

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Unit 5 Discussion 1

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Debate in OPPOSITION of expanding the scope of practice in the state of Florida.

Use references in APA format and in-text citations.

This should be between 350-400 words.

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Culture in Nursing DQ 14 student reply Vanessa Camano

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Cultural competence

Cultural competence refers to the ability to provide care to patients by taking into consideration their diverse values and behaviours including tailoring healthcare delivery to meet the patient’s needs. Cultural competence and ethical decision-making are two interrelated concepts that are central to services rendered by all healthcare professionals. Cultural competence is based on ethical principles, personal and professional experience, legal issues and morals and it informs ethical decision-making.

Cultural competence has been formalized in various professional codes of ethics, which require competent services to be afforded to everyone regardless of their cultural or linguistic background. Cultural competence has been given prominence by the developments that have occurred in the healthcare system, for example the use of evidence-based practice (Louw, 2016). This is coupled with the diversification of the health professional workforce. All these changes have necessitated research on how to increase cultural competence, which have revealed that culture affects the patients’ communication styles, their beliefs about health and attitudes towards healthcare, which affects certain aspects like the frequency of seeking medical attention (Louw, 2016).

Ethical Decision Making

Ethics are inherent in every healthcare profession and the various professionals are required to be knowledgeable on the rules that govern their practice. Ethical decision-making is a complex process grounded in various themes that facilitate the process of decision making in order to resolve ethical dilemmas (Louw, 2016). The decision-making process entails identifying and gathering the relevant information, identifying the relevant ethical issues and possible violations, identifying possible courses of action, identifying the need for external consultation and studying the impact of each action (Louw, 2016). Afterwards, a plan of action is developed and implemented.

When working with culturally diverse individuals, healthcare professionals collaborate with interpreters who act as cultural brokers. The healthcare professional is required to train interpreters working under their supervision on procedures and ethics. Cultural competence ensures that healthcare professionals understand and support their patients and families more effectively.

Implementing cultural competence in ethical decision making

One of the ways through which cultural competence can be incorporated in ethical practice is through evidence-based practice where healthcare professionals are required to have the necessary knowledge, skills and attitudes to provide competent care to their patients for a range of diverse cultures (Louw, 2016). A culturally sensitive ethical perspective is essential for good practice and professionals need to be made aware of strict adherence to professional ethical codes, which may result in ethical dilemmas when providing services to patients from diverse cultures (Louw, 2016). Healthcare professionals should be able to communicate effectively, understand their patients’ unique beliefs, and make decisions that meet the patients’ needs in a sensitive and effective manner.

Ethical dilemmas are caused by conflict between respect for autonomy and cultural sensitivity. Health care professionals are able to address ethical dilemmas through ethical decision-making frameworks, which begin with developing ethical sensitivity (Louw, 2016). The characteristics of ethical sensitivity include identifying the patient’s moral perception, putting oneself in the place of the patient in order to identify comparable reactions and having an awareness of the significance of ethical principles and the stakeholders’ needs and interests (Louw, 2016).

Healthcare professionals can similarly incorporate cultural competence in ethical decision making through using the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), which provides the framework for the holistic assessment of patients (Naude, 2015). The ICF framework respects the patient’s autonomy and emphasize the importance of a healthcare professional’s ability to recognize how psychological factors influence the patients’ perceptions and expectations and how the psychological, social and environmental factors affects the patient’s perception of his ability to function as a member of society (Naude, 2015). This would enable healthcare professionals to develop their assessments and interventions based on the patients’ needs and this would ensure that patients gain confidence in them (Naude, 2015).

Instilling cultural competence and ethical decision making

Training has been suggested as the most effective way of ensuring cultural competence. Due to the importance of the ethics, healthcare professionals training programs are required by professional associations to include ethics where strategies on active listening, visualization of other people’s viewpoints and response to ethical issues (Louw, 2016). These strategies facilitate the development of an ethical framework that results in the development of ethical reasoning abilities. Moreover, ethical sensitivity can be developed through enhancing relationship skills that encourage other people to feel positive and engage in interaction and these skills facilitate the emotional regulation, which enhances effective ethical decision-making (Louw, 2016). Training on ethical sensitivity is important for students and healthcare professionals because it helps them resolve ethical dilemmas in ethical practice.

Training on cultural competence should integrate the understanding of ethical issues and these ethical issues need to be linked to the ethical principles of health care service delivery. This will lead to the better preparation of healthcare professionals to deal with conflicts in clinical practice

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phase 5 final nursing research

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

 The final submission is basically the combination of the other four phases into one paper. This paper will need to be corrected with all of the feedback provided from previous papers. Include on this paper a conclusion and learning experiences from the essentials and from the class. APA Format. Please read carefully the instructions, attached you will find all the phases from 1-4. If you have any question please let me know. I have to get the best grade in the last one.

note: My professor comment:

Please concentrate on Methodology based on the type of research. You did not identify the type of study. Data collection and analysis is based on the type of study you conduct.

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NR632 Phase 5

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Phase 5: Implementation and Evaluation

Table of Contents

Implementation of the Planned Change Practicum Project

In earlier phases, you developed a measurable project outcome and an action plan to facilitate achievement of the outcome. During this phase, you will implement the action plan.

As you implement the action plan, be mindful of the following:

  • What are the financial, human, and material resources being utilized?
  • How effective are the strategies?
  • To what extent do the action steps facilitate achievement of the project outcome?
  • Do the action steps align with evidence-based practice?
  • What support and collaboration is needed from stakeholders to carry out the action plan?

Evaluation of hte Planned Change Practicum Project

Once an action plan is implemented, measurement of achievement of the project outcome will take place. Refer to your evaluation plan, completed in Phase 3, and carry out the necessary steps to evaluate the effectiveness of your action plan.

Think About It

  • What is the outcome measure in your evaluation plan?
  • What is the method you will use to gather data to evaluate your project outcome?
  • What was the indicator of success, and was your outcome successfully achieved?

Practicum Application and Activities

  • Prepare a plan with specific talking points to meet with your faculty (and practicum mentor if available) regarding the implementation and evaluation of your planned change project.
  • Meet with your faculty (and practicum mentor if available) to discuss implementation and evaluation of the planned change project.
  • Validate your work on Phase 5 with your faculty (and practicum mentor if available) as needed.

Suggested activities to consider for hypothetical implementation and evaluation might include (but are not limited to) the following:

  • Create a concept map that portrays application of a change model to the hypothetical implementation of the MSN Project. Submit the concept map and a brief explanation with the practicum log.
  • Based upon your planned change project (actual or hypothetical), reflect upon professional competencies necessary for successful implementation and evaluation of the planned change. Submit your reflection of necessary competencies along rationale with your practicum log.
  • Revisit the Johns Hopkins Action Planning Tool (Appendix I) and consider its usefulness in the implementation and evaluation phases. Develop a visual chart, table, or graph to convey project action steps and target dates that are identified in Appendix I; submit your visual tool with the practicum log.
  • Revisit your action planning tool and consider the variables or barriers that could interrupt the implementation process (for example a change in stakeholder support, funding stream, time, material, or human resources, among others). Identify two potential barriers that may arise and construct a plan to each; submit your plan with the practicum log.
  • Describe an actual or hypothetical plan for communication (or modification of a plan already developed in coursework) that would be applied during the implementation and evaluation phases; submit your plan with the practicum log.
  • Create or refine a budget (real or hypothetical) that conveys the projected cost, actual cost, as well as variance; submit your budget with the practicum log.
  • Construct a plan to address any cost variance that may occur while implementing the MSN Project; submit your plan with the practicum log.
  • Construct a hypothetical scenario involving evaluation of outcomes, noting how the specific outcome measure, indicator(s) of success, and outcome achievement hypothetically attained. Submit your scenario with the practicum log.
  • From a hypothetical perspective, expand the scope MSN Project and create a plan to execute the expanded project; submit your expanded plan with the practicum log.
  • Based upon your hypothetical plans for an expanded project, develop a plan to disseminate the information gained. Explain the rationale for your dissemination strategies; submit your plan with the practicum log.
  • Reflect upon your professional growth through the implementation and evaluation phases of the planned change project (actual or hypothetical). In what ways have your competencies been strengthened? Where might there be opportunities for continued enhancement? Submit your reflections with the practicum time log.

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Nursing homework help

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Discuss the events that have contributed (or will continue to contribute) to the nursing shortage, or that contribute to a shortage in a region or specialty. Discuss at least one way that the nursing profession is currently working toward a resolution of this problem. In replies to peers, offer different examples of how the nursing shortage has been addressed in your state, community, or specialty area.

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IOM FUTURE OF NURSING REPORT AND NURSING

June 28, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Review the IOM report, “The Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health,” and explore the “Campaign for Action: State Action Coalition” website. In a 1,000-1,250 word paper, discuss the influence the IOM report and state-based action coalitions have had on nursing practice, nursing education, and nursing workforce development, and how they continue to advance the goals for the nursing profession.

Include the following:

1. Describe the work of the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Committee Initiative that led to the IOM report, “Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.”

2. Outline the four “Key Messages” that structure the IOM Report recommendations. Explain how these have transformed or influenced nursing practice, nursing education and training, nursing leadership, and nursing workforce development. Provide examples.

3. Discuss the role of state-based action coalitions. Explain how these coalitions help advance the goals specified in the IOM report, “Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.”

4. Research the initiatives on which your state’s action coalition is working. Summarize two initiatives spearheaded by your state’s action coalition. Discuss the ways these initiatives advance the nursing profession.

5. Describe barriers to advancement that currently exist in your state and explain how nursing advocates in your state overcome these barriers.

You are required to cite to a minimum of three sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years and appropriate for the assignment criteria and relevant to nursing practice.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

RUBRICS

1. Robert Wood Foundation Committee Work and IOM Report –  A clear and accurate description of the work of the Robert Wood Foundation Committee Initiative that led to the IOM report is presented. 10pts

2. Key Messages Transforming Nursing –   The four key messages that structure the IOM report are clearly outlined. A description of how these transformed nursing practice, nursing education and training, nursing leadership, and nursing workforce development are thoroughly discussed. 15pts

3. State-Based Action Coalitions and Their Help in Advancing Goals form IOM Report – The role of state-based action coalitions is thoroughly discussed. A detailed and accurate discussion of how they help advance the goals in the IOM report is presented.  15pts

4. Initiatives spearheaded by a state action coalition are omitted. –   Two initiatives spearheaded by a state action coalition and how they advance the nursing profession are thoroughly discussed. The discussion demonstrates a clear understanding of the state action committee and the role in advancing the nursing profession. 20pts

5. Barriers and Advancement – Barriers to advancement that currently exist in the state are thoroughly explored and how nursing advocates in the state overcome barriers are thoroughly described. 20pts

6. Thesis Development and Purpose – Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear. 5pts .

7. Argument Logic and Construction – Clear and convincing argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative. 5pts

8. Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use) – Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English. 5pts

9. Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment) – All format elements are correct.  2pts

10. Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style) –  Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error. 3pts

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