assessment 1 class 14

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Conduct a health assessment of a population of your choice. Explain the process and summarize the results.

By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and assessment criteria:

 

· Competency 1: Health Assessment – Conduct comprehensive and focused assessments of health and illness parameters in individuals, groups, and vulnerable populations.

. Describe the key elements that make up a health assessment at the community, group, and individual levels.

. Explain the process involved in conducting a comprehensive health assessment.

. Summarize the findings of a health assessment for a specific population.

· Competency 3: Nursing Research and Informatics – Incorporate evidence-based practice interventions (for example, information systems and patient care technologies) as appropriate for managing the acute and chronic care of patients, promoting health across the lifespan.

. Use valid, scholarly research resources relevant to the field of nursing to support information presented.

· Competency 5: Communication – Communicate effectively with all members of the health care team, including interdepartmental and interdisciplinary collaboration for quality outcomes.

. Write coherently to support a central idea in appropriate APA format with correct grammar, usage, and mechanics as expected of a nursing professional.

 

Assessment Instructions

Conduct a health assessment of a population of your choice as you complete the following:

1. Describe the key elements that make up a health assessment at each of the following levels:

1. Community.

2. Group.

3. Individual.

2. Explain the process for completing a comprehensive health assessment.

3. Summarize the findings of the health assessment you conducted. Be sure you include a brief description of the population you selected.

Additional Requirements

· Format: Include a title page and reference. Use APA style and formatting.

· Length: This assessment should be approximately 3 pages in length.

· References: Cite at least three current scholarly or professional resources.

· Font: Use double-spaced, 12-point, Times New Roman font.

 

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assignment1

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Discuss the controversy regarding childhood immunization and the potential affect on community health.

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Module 11 Course Project – Semester Project Completion

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Now, it’s time to turn in your semester project. Remember your project should include the following:

  • * A Mental Health Concern – and the Patient or Community – for your project.
  • * A brief history of the patient including diagnoses and medications – or a brief description of the community issue.
  • * Any substance abuse, addiction or violence issues surrounding this mental health problem. Describe the attempted interventions that have been made for your patient or community, and identify what has been successful and what has not. Submit a rough draft of information gathered so far.
  • * Describe your thoughts regarding your patient’s or community’s mental health issue. Are there any cognitive concerns? Think about interventions that may be helpful. Include sources for evidence-based practice.
  • * List appropriate nursing interventions for your chosen patient or community. How will you evaluate effectiveness? Include an evaluation tool or rubric.
  • * Complete your Semester Project by identifying mental health resources that can be used for your chosen patient or community. Finish with an educational tool for your patient or community.

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Health Policy

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Assignment 1

Health Policy Brief Part I

This assignment is one of three papers that will be developed throughout the Policy, Advocacy, and Healthcare Ethics course. The purpose of this assignment is to draft a health policy brief for stakeholders and community members. In other words, you will identify a relevant health-related issue impacting populations and/or communities in the United States that has legislative and policy implications at the state and/or national level. The assignment is not about identifying a policy or procedure at your place of employment, but rather identifying a systematic healthcare concern that has legislative and policy implications at least at the state level. Sample issues may be identified in your state legislative website, board of nursing website, or national association website. Also, your textbook addresses systematic issues such as smoking during pregnancy, medical cannabis use, and patient safety outcomes, to name a few. Prior to beginning to work on this project, please view the 18:36 minute video developed by the Women’s and Children’s Health Policy Center titled, The Art and Craft of Policy Briefs: Translating Science and Engaging Stakeholders, which will provide you with an understanding on the development of a policy brief.

Submission Parameters:

For the first part of this three-paper assignment, please use the following guidelines and criteria. Also, please refer to the rubric for point allocation and assignment expectations. The expected length of the paper is approximately 5-6 pages, which does not include the cover page and reference page(s).

I.   Introduction (including purpose statement)

II.  Identify and describe a specific and relevant healthcare issue

  • Please identify an issue that      has state and/or national legislative implications
  • Describe the healthcare issue      with the support of research studies, bills that have been introduced to      the legislature, national association position statements, and reliable      electronic health-related sources (i.e. Institute of Medicine, Centers for      Disease Control and Prevention). Include information on the demographic      impacted by the issue, adverse health/clinical outcomes, and prevalence.

III.  Identify potential stakeholders and/or constituents who may support your health policy brief. For example, you may address the individuals, communities, and/or populations who may be impacted by the issue.

IV.  Identify at least one specific piece of legislation (bill) that is pending on your healthcare issue. Also, please identify if this piece of legislation is sponsored by the state or at the national level. Many times, bills are supported by national organizations such as the American Association of Nurse Practitioners. If your state legislature is not proposing a bill on your specific topic, you may identify a bill from another state for this paper. Make sure that you provide in-text citations and reference the document.

V.   Draft a plan for your Health Policy Brief, which may capitalize from an existing health campaign and/or proposed bill. Include at least two objectives that you hope to achieve. The plan should seek to create a new policy or change an existing policy at the state and/or national level. The plan should be described in no more than 2 paragraphs.

VI.  Conclusion

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DQ

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Why is the concept of family health important? Consider the various strategies for health promotion. How does a nurse determine which strategy would best enable the targeted individuals to gain more control over, and improve, their health?

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Week 7: Concept Process Assignment Guidelines

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I need 1 paragraph on Alzheimer’s dementia. 1 paragraph on Beta amyloid plauques and 1 paragraph connecting the two, including signs and symptoms. No plagairism!!

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week 5.1 NR533

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The PICOT question that is proposed for my final project:

P: Are patients that are in the hospital who receive patient education lead to an increase in HCAPHS scores? I: with education to the staff and updated documentation policies, C: As opposed to those that do not? O: Increase HCAPHs scores and decreased readmissions at 30 days T: over 12 months.

Information that will need to be obtained includes what our current HCAPHS, the readmission rate and diagnosis of the patients are. What the cost of the current stay is on all the different levels of the hospital. How does HCAPHS affect reimbursement? What is the baseline documentation being done on education and care plans? The survey’s on the staff’s perception of what needs to be documented. How much time and what the cost of the hourly staff chosen to audit compliance of patient documentation of education and care plans. As one audits charge, there is a need to try and identify what are the deficits in the education and is there a correlation to the patient being readmitted to the facility (Burnett, Lee, Doherty, Suh, Kim, …, Choi, & Suh, 2018). The difficult part of my PICOT questions is that much of the information is subjective instead of objective. From my project, my true hope is that the policies of the organization will be updated with what is expected and that the staff will be educated on the proper way of documenting in the chart.  One of my biggest concerns is that many do not give themselves enough information even to remember a patient or situation if that chart is ever brought to court for some reason.

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Comprehensive Patient Health Assessment Paper

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Advanced Health Assessment Theory (NURS 511)

Comprehensive Patient Health Assessment Paper

 

 

Student Name:   Student ID:  
Date:   Instructor Name:  
Allotted Grade:   Given Grade:  
ILOs #: 1.2 Differentiate normal physical findings and variations in health to identify client health problems.
ILOs #: 2.1 Critically analyze health assessment findings, including diagnostic data for health priorities and consider actual health problems.
ILOs #: 2.3 Utilize a holistic approach to assess clients with emphasis on environment and family structure and functioning
ILOs #: 2.4 Assess the physiological, psychological, developmental and sociocultural factors that directly and indirectly affect individuals’ health.
ILOs #: 3.2 Commit ethical and legal principles in conducting and reporting findings relevant to health assessment

 

I. Patient Profile (2 marks):
Patient’s Name: Gender:
Age: Birth date/ place:
Marital Status: Address:
Religion: Nationality:
Source of Data: Date:

 

 

II. Chief complaint/ Reason for seeking care (CC) (Reason for the encounter/seeking medical help ) (5 marks):

(One or more major symptoms + their last occurrence)
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

III. History of Present Illness (10 marks):

(State the chronological sequence of events in reference to the client’s chief complaints applying PQRSTU)
First Major Symptom
P (Palliative & Provocative):
Provocative: What can increase the symptom? What brings it on? What were you doing when you first noticed it? What makes it worse?
 
Palliative: What can decrease the symptom? What makes it better?
 
Q (Quality): How can you describe the symptom? How does it look, feel, sound?
 
R (Region & Radiation):
Region/ where has the symptom occurred on your body:
Radiation/ does it radiate to other parts of the body. If yes, where:
S (Severity):  How intense/severe is it? how much severe is your symptom, on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the most severe? is it getting better, worse, staying the same?
 
T: Timing
Onset: When did the pain or symptom start? Exactly when did it first occur?
 
Duration: How long did it last?
 
Frequency: How many times a day does it happen? How often does it occur?
 
U (Understand Patient’s Perception of the problem): What do you think it means?
 
A (Associated factors): was the symptom associated with other symptoms)
 

 

 

Second Major Symptom
P (Palliative & Provocative):
Provocative: What can increase the symptom? What brings it on? What were you doing when you first noticed it? What makes it worse?
 
Palliative: What can decrease the symptom? What makes it better?
 
Q (Quality): How can you describe the symptom? How does it look, feel, sound?
 
R (Region & Radiation):
Region/ where has the symptom occurred on your body:
Radiation/ does it radiate to other parts of the body. If yes, where:
S (Severity):  How intense/severe is it? how much severe is your symptom, on a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the most severe? is it getting better, worse, staying the same?
 
T: Timing
Onset: When did the pain or symptom start? Exactly when did it first occur?
 
Duration: How long did it last?
 
Frequency: How many times a day does it happen? How often does it occur?
 
U (Understand Patient’s Perception of the problem): What do you think it means?
 
A (Associated factors): was the symptom associated with other symptoms)
 

 

 

IV. Past Health History (5 marks):
Childhood illnesses: (include name of disease, age and treatment received)
 
Health Maintenance:
Immunizations: (include name of vaccination, number of doses, age when administered, dosage lessened or given fully, causes if not given)
 
Previous Screening Tests: (include test name, result and when they were last performed)
 
Accidents or Injuries: (Include cause, date and treatment)
 
Adult Illness:
Serious or Chronic Illnesses: (Include name of the disease, duration and related treatments)
 
Surgical operations: (Include dates, indications, and types of operations)
 
Pervious hospitalization: (Include cause, name of hospital, how the condition was treated, how long the person was hospitalized, and name of the physician)
 
Obstetric/Gynecologic: (Include obstetric history, menstrual history, methods of contraception, sexual function number of pregnancies (gravidity), number of deliveries in which the fetus reached full term (term), number of preterm pregnancies (preterm), number of incomplete pregnancies (miscarriages or abortions), and number of children living (living). For each complete pregnancy, note the course of pregnancy; labor and delivery; sex, weight, and condition of each infant; and postpartum course)
 
Psychiatric: (Include Illness and time frame, diagnoses, hospitalizations, and treatments)
 
Allergies: (Include allergen type (medication, food, or contact agent such as fabric or environmental agent), and the reaction)
 

 

 

 

V. Functional Assessment (15 marks):
Self-Esteem, Self-Concept:
Education level: (last year of schooling/ last grade completed) & Other significant training)
 
Financial status: (Monthly income, income adequate for lifestyle and/or health concerns)
 
Value-belief system: (religious practices and perception of personal strengths)
 
Activity/Exercise: A daily profile reflecting usual daily activities. “Tell me how you spend a typical day.” 
Ability to perform ADLs: (independent or needs assistance with feeding, bathing, hygiene, dressing, toileting, bed-to-chair transfer, walking, standing, or climbing stairs)
 
Is there any use of wheelchair, prostheses, or mobility aids?
 
Leisure activities enjoyed and the exercise pattern: (type, frequency and duration per day or week, method of warm-up session, method of monitoring the response of the body to exercise).
 
Sleep/Rest: (Sleep patterns (hours of sleep and arising), daytime naps, any sleep aids used)
 
Nutrition/Elimination. Recall of all food and beverages taken over the past 24 hours. Ask, “Is that menu typical of most days?” 
Dietary Consideration (Food preferred/like to eat):
 
Dietary Restrictions (Food dislike or not allowed to eat):
 
Any food allergy or intolerance:
 
Daily intake of caffeine (coffee, tea, cola drinks):
 
Regularity of stools and urination/ how many times a day:
 
Problems with mobility or transfer in toileting, continence, use of laxatives:
Interpersonal Relationships/Resources:
Primary Care Provider:
 
Current house-hold:
 
Social roles: “How would you describe your role in the family? How would you say you get along with family, friends, and co-workers?” 
 
Support systems: “To whom could you go for support with a problem at work, your health, or a personal problem?”
 
Contact with others: “Is time spent alone pleasurable and relaxing, or is it isolating?”
 
Spiritual Resources: Use the Faith, Influence, Community, and Address (FICA) questions
Faith: “Does religious faith or spirituality play an important part in your life? Do you consider yourself to be a religious or spiritual person?”
 
Influence: “How does your religious faith or spirituality influence the way you think about your health or care for yourself?”
 
Community: “Are you a part of any religious or spiritual community or congregation?”
 
Address: “Would you like me to address any religious or spiritual issues or concerns with you?”
 
Coping and Stress Management:
Is there any change in lifestyle or any current stress?
 
What methods you have tried to relieve stress and whether these have been helpful?
 
Personal Habits:
Tobacco: “Do you smoke cigarettes (pipe, use chewing tobacco)? At what age did you start? How many packs do you smoke per day? How many years have you smoked?” “Have you ever tried to quit?” and “How did it go?”
 
Alcohol: Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, and Eye-opener (CAGE) test
 
Illicit or Street Drugs: prescription painkillers, frequency of use and how use has affected work or family.
 
Environment/Hazards:
Housing and neighborhood (living alone, knowledge of neighbors):
 
Any hazards in workplace and at home
 
Use of seatbelts:
 
Travel or residence in other countries, including time spent abroad:
 
Occupational Health:
Occupation: What is your job?
 
Exposure History: Ever worked with any health hazard such as asbestos, inhalants, chemicals, repetitive motion? 
 
Wear any protective equipment? Any work programs in place that monitor exposure? Aware of any health problems now that may be related to work exposure?
 
What do you like or dislike about the job?
 
 

 

 

VI. Perception of Health (3 Marks)
“How do you define health?       
 
How do you view your situation now?
 
What are your concerns?
 
What do you think will happen in the future?
 
What are your health goals?
 
What do you expect from us as nurses, physicians (or other health care providers)?”
 

 

 

VII. Family History (5 marks):

Used primarily to discover any hereditary or familial diseases in the family members

Diagram the age and health, or age and cause of death, of each immediate relative including parents, grandparents, siblings, children, and grandchildren.

Ask specifically about coronary heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke, diabetes, obesity, blood disorders, breast/ovarian cancer, colon cancer, sickle-cell anemia, arthritis, allergies, alcohol or drug addiction, mental illness, suicide, seizure disorder, kidney disease, and tuberculosis (TB).
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

VIII. Review of Body Systems (10 marks): (see guidelines for more details)
Describe abnormalities for general and affected System/s:

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IX. Physical Examination: (20 Marks)
General Survey:

 

 

 

 
Baseline Vital Signs (2%)
Temperature   Blood Pressure  
Pulse   O2 Saturation:  
Respiration      
Skin:
 
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat (HEENT):
 
Neck:
 
Thorax and Lungs:
 
Cardiovascular System:
 
Abdomen:
 
Peripheral vascular system:
 
Musculoskeletal System:
 
Nervous system:
 

 

 

X. Diagnostic Procedures (Laboratory, Radiologic Imaging Studies, etc.) (5 marks) :
Test or Procedure Date Results Interpretations

Rationale for the results
       
       

 
     

 

 

  

 

 

XI. Descriptive and non-descriptive medications (5 marks) :
Current medications (Prescribed by physician/doctor):
Generic Name & /

Classification

 Trade Name Dosage Frequency Route
         
         
         
Non-descriptive medications: Legal/ illegal, over the counter drugs (OTC):
Generic Name & /

Classification

 Trade Name Frequency Route Rationale
         
         
         

 

 

XII. Interpretation of data and identification of client’s strengths and weaknesses (5 marks) :
Strengths Weaknesses
·

  

 

 

XIII. Nursing Diagnosis (5 marks) : 
1  
2  
3  

 

 

For Instructor Use Only
Evaluator Name:   Evaluator Signature  
Checked by:   Auditor Signature:  

 

 

Page 1 of 1

Accredited University by the ASIC on March 27, 2017 Description: H:\Logo\cropped-cropped-logo-ahpgs.png Accredited BSN Program by AHPGS on February 15, 2018

 

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Patient-Centered Care Report

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Overview

Write a report on the application of population health improvement initiative outcomes to patient-centered care, based on information presented in an interactive multimedia scenario.

In this assessment, you have an opportunity to apply the tenets of evidence-based practice in both patient-centered care and population health improvement contexts. You will be challenged to think critically, evaluate what the evidence suggests is an appropriate approach to personalizing patient care, and determine what aspects of the approach could be applied to similar situations and patients.

SHOW LESS

By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and assessment criteria:

  • Competency 1: Apply evidence-based practice to plan patient-centered care.
    • Evaluate the outcomes of a population health improvement initiative.
    • Develop an approach to personalizing patient care that incorporates lessons learned from a population health improvement initiative.
  • Competency 2: Apply evidence-based practice to design interventions to improve population health.
    • Propose a strategy for improving the outcomes of a population health improvement initiative, or for ensuring that all outcomes are being addressed, based on the best available evidence.
  • Competency 3: Evaluate outcomes of evidence-based interventions.
    • Propose a framework for evaluating the outcomes of an approach to personalizing patient care and determining what aspects of the approach could be applied to similar situations and patients.
  • Competency 4: Evaluate the value and relative weight of available evidence upon which to make a clinical decision.
    • Justify the value and relevance of evidence used to support an approach to personalizing patient care.
  • Competency 5: Synthesize evidence-based practice and academic research to communicate effective solutions.
    • Write clearly and logically, with correct grammar and mechanics.
    • Integrate relevant and credible sources of evidence to support assertions, correctly formatting citations and references using APA style.

RESOURCES

  • MSN Program Journey | Transcript.
  • Assessment Instructions Preparation
    In this assessment, you will base your Patient-Centered Care Report on the scenario presented in the Evidence-Based Health Evaluation and Application media piece. Some of the writing you completed and exported from the media piece should serve as pre-writing for this assessment and inform the final draft of your report. Even though the media piece presented only one type of care setting, you can extrapolate individualized care decisions, based on population health improvement initiative outcomes, to other settings.
    Requirements
    Note: The requirements outlined below correspond to the grading criteria in the scoring guide, so be sure to address each point. In addition, you may want to review the performance level descriptions for each criterion to see how your work will be assessed.
    Writing, Supporting Evidence, and APA Style

    • Write clearly and logically, using correct grammar and mechanics.
    • Integrate relevant evidence from 3–5 current scholarly or professional sources to support your evaluation, recommendations, and plans.
      • Apply correct APA formatting to all in-text citations and references.
      • Attach a reference list to your report.
    • Report Content
      Address the following points in a 4–6 page report:
    • Evaluate the expected outcomes of the population health improvement initiative that were, and were not, achieved.
      • Describe the outcomes that were achieved, their positive effects on the community’s health, and any variance across demographic groups.
      • Describe the outcomes that were not achieved, the extent to which they fell short of expectations, and any variance across demographic groups.
      • Identify the factors (for example: institutional, community, environmental, resources, communication) that may have contributed to any achievement shortfalls.
    • Propose a strategy for improving the outcomes of the population health improvement initiative, or ensuring that all outcomes are being addressed, based on the best available evidence.
      • Describe the corrective measures you would take to address the factors that may have contributed to achievement shortfalls.
      • Cite the evidence (from similar projects, research, or professional organization resources) that supports the corrective measures you are proposing.
      • Explain how the evidence illustrates the likelihood of improved outcomes if your proposed strategy is enacted
    • Develop an approach to personalizing patient care that incorporates lessons learned from the population health improvement initiative outcomes.
      • Explain how the outcomes and lessons learned informed the decisions you made in your approach for personalizing care for the patient with a health condition related to the population health concern addressed in the improvement initiative.
      • Ensure that your approach to personalizing care for the individual patient addresses the patient’s:
        • Individual health needs.
        • Economic and environmental realities.
        • Culture and family.
      • Incorporate the best available evidence (from both the population health improvement initiative and other relevant sources) to inform your approach and actions you intend to take.
    • Justify the value and relevance of evidence you used to support your approach to personalizing care for your patient.
      • Explain why your evidence is valuable and relevant to your patient’s case.
      • Explain why each piece of evidence is appropriate for both the health issue you are trying to correct and for the unique situation of your patient and their family.
    • Propose a framework for evaluating the outcomes of your approach to personalizing patient care.
      • Ensure that your framework includes measurable criteria that are relevant to your desired outcomes.
      • Explain why the criteria are appropriate and useful measures of success.
      • Identify the specific aspects of your approach that are most likely to be transferable to other individual cases.
  • Scoring Guide
  • 1.  Evaluate the outcomes of a population health improvement initiative.
    Evaluates the outcomes of a population health improvement initiative. Identifies knowledge gaps, unknowns, missing information, unanswered questions, or areas of uncertainty (where further information could improve the evaluation).

2.  Propose a strategy for improving the outcomes of a population health improvement initiative, or for ensuring that all outcomes are being addressed, based on the best available evidence.

Proposes a strategy for improving the outcomes of a population health improvement initiative, or for ensuring that all outcomes are being addressed, based on the best available evidence. Acknowledges challenges in the proposed strategy.

3. Develop an approach to personalizing patient care that incorporates lessons learned from a population health improvement initiative.

Develops an approach to personalizing patient care that incorporates lessons learned from a population health improvement initiative, and identifies assumptions on which the approach is based.

4.  Justify the value and relevance of evidence used to support an approach to personalizing patient care.

Justifies the value and relevance of evidence used to support an approach to personalizing patient care. Identifies knowledge gaps, unknowns, missing information, unanswered questions, or areas of uncertainty (where further information could improve the personalized concept map).

5.  Propose a framework for evaluating the outcomes of an approach to personalizing patient care and determining what aspects of the approach could be applied to similar situations and patients.

Proposes a framework for evaluating the outcomes of an approach to personalizing patient care and determining what aspects of the approach could be applied to similar situations and patients. Acknowledges the limitations of the proposal.

6.  Write clearly and logically, with correct grammar and mechanics.

Writes clearly, logically, and persuasively; grammar and mechanics are error-free.

7.  Integrate relevant and credible sources of evidence to support assertions, correctly formatting citations and references using APA style.

Integrates relevant and credible sources of evidence to support assertions, correctly formatting citations and references using APA style. Citations are error-free.

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Midterm Exam 2019 South University

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What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?
Question 1 options:
Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive
Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
Question 2
What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs, halting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema of the Golgi body occurs, preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell.
Shift of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs, destroying the cytoskeleton.
Question 3
In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because:
Question 3 options:
The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.
Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.
Question 4
What mechanisms occur in the liver cells as a result of lipid accumulation?
Question 4 options:
Obstruction of the common bile duct, preventing the flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder
Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins
Increased binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins
Increased conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids
Question 5
Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by 101. During an Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?
Question 5 options:
Histamine bound to H2
Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor
Epinephrine bound to mast cells
Acetylcholine bound to mast cells
Question 6
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 6 options:
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 7
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
Question 7 options:
Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface
Question 8
Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the cause of which disease?
Question 8 options:
Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Myasthenia gravis
Question 9
Why does tissue damage occur in acute rejection after organ transplantation?
Question 9 options:
Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T (Tc) cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
Receptors on natural killer (NK) cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of the transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
Antibodies coat the surface of the transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
Question 10
Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
Question 10 options:
Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
Question 11
After the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated, the resulting impulse is transmitted from the carotid artery by which sequence of events?
Question 11 options:
From the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and to decrease parasympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
Question 12
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
Question 12 options:
Inflammation and roughening of the endothelium of the artery
Hypertrophy and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery
Excessive clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery
Evidence of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery
Question 13
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
Question 13 options:
Prolonged QT interval
ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
ST depression myocardial infarction (STDMI)
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)
Question 14
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when the patient is lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Question 14 options:
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Pericardial effusion
Restrictive pericarditis
Acute pericarditis
Question 15
Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism?
Question 15 options:
Decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
Increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), decreased acid-base balance (pH), and decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
Stimulation of stretch or J-receptors
Fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm
Question 16
Which cytokines activated in childhood asthma produce an allergic response?
Question 16 options:
IL-1, IL-2, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
L-8, IL-12, and tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-α)
IL-4, IL-10, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13
Question 17
Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
Question 17 options:
An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the vas deferens
An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Improvement on a trial of asthma medication
Question 18
Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
Question 18 options:
Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the vas deferens
A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 19
What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis?
Question 19 options:
A deficit of IL-1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
A deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
A deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α
A deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
Question 20
Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Question 20 options:
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
Question 21
Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and progression of which diseases?
Question 21 options:
Cardiovascular diseases, such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease
Renal diseases, such as acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis
Gastrointestinal diseases, such as peptic ulcer disease and Crohn disease
Muscular diseases, such as muscular dystrophy and fibromyalgia
Question 22
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 22 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 23
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 23 options:
Oncotic pressure
Buffering
Net filtration
Hydrostatic pressure
Question 24
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 24 options:
Capillary hydrostatic
Interstitial hydrostatic
Capillary oncotic
Interstitial oncotic
Question 25
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 25 options:
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 26
Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the perception of thirst are stimulated by:
Question 26 options:
A decrease in serum sodium
An increase in plasma osmolality
An increase in the glomerular filtration rate
A decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation
Question 27
Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem?
Question 27 options:
The circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues.
Complement and chemotaxis are deficient.
Underlying chronic illnesses exist.
The number of mast cells is insufficient.
Question 28
Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:
Question 28 options:
Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters
Inhibiting the production of myelin around the nerves
Increasing the resting membrane potential
Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves
Question 29
Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by:
Question 29 options:
Competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted
Binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen
Destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Question 30
Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?
Question 30 options:
No difference exists, and these terms may be correctly used interchangeably.
A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs under the dura.
A subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture.
A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull, such as an aneurysm eruption, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull, such as a blunt force trauma.
Question 31
What physiologic change occurs during heat exhaustion?
Question 31 options:
Hemoconcentration occurs because of the loss of salt and water.
Cramping of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss.
Thermoregulation fails because of high core temperatures.
Subcutaneous layers are damaged because of high core temperatures.
Question 32
Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive storage of:
Question 32 options:
Iron, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Hemoglobin, which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells
Albumin, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Amino acids, which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Question 33
Hemosiderosis results in what substance being stored in excess as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues?
Question 33 options:
Hemoglobin
Ferritin
Iron
Transferrin
Question 34
What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
Question 34 options:
Acoustic trauma and noise induced
High frequency and low frequency
High frequency and acoustic trauma
Noise induced and low frequency
Question 35
What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
Question 35 options:
Coagulative
Liquefactive
Caseous
Gangrene
Question 36
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 36 options:
Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane.
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 37
In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of:
Question 37 options:
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen
Question 38
What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia?
Question 38 options:
Hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised.
Skeletal muscle cells atrophy as a result of paralysis.
The heart muscle enlarges as a result of hypertension.
The size of the uterus increases during pregnancy.
Question 39
Current research has determined that chemical-induced cellular injury:
Question 39 options:
Affects the permeability of the plasma membrane
Is often the result of the damage caused by reactive free radicals
Is rarely influenced by lipid peroxidation
Seldom involves the cell’s organelles
Question 40
What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide?
Question 40 options:
It increases capillary permeability and causes pain.
It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation.
It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever.
It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.

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