NURS 6541 Midterm Exam / NURS6541 Midterm Exam   (Latest): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University

 

· Question 1

 

 

When completing this   quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the   expectations for academic integrity?

 

· Question 2

 

Miguel, age 14, was hit in   the eye with a baseball and developed eye pain, decreased visual acuity, and   injection of the globe. Upon exam you note blood in the anterior chamber and   confirm diagnosis of hyphema. What treatment do you recommend while Miguel is   waiting to see the ophthalmologist

 

· Question 3

 

The father of a   3-year-old is concerned because the child stutters. What should your approach   be?

 

· Question 4

 

A 2-day-old   newbornwith conjunctivitis is likely due to

 

· Question 5

 

You see a 13-year-old who   reports she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability   to successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget   developmental stage?

 

· Question 6

 

For adolescent   girls, peak height velocity should occur by Tanner Stage (SMR):

 

· Question 7

 

Which is the correct   order for introduction of solid foods to an infant?

 

· Question 8

 

I can walk well on tiptoes,   my speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I cannot balance   on one foot for 1 second. I am:

 

· Question 9

 

You receive a phone call from   the mother of a 2-year-old. She states her child has sleep refusal. You   suggest the child should be able to:

 

· Question 10

 

A   15-month-old  boy says “mama” and “dada,” points and gestures if he   wants things, and follows simple one-step commands. Your best response is   which of the following?

 

· Question 11

 

At what age would a child   be expected to remember a string of numbers and repeat them backwards?

 

· Question 12

 

A 13-month-old child is noted   to be at the 25th percentile for weight, the 10th percentile for height, and   less than the 5th percentile for head circumference. She was   born at term. She was noted to have a small head at birth, to be   developmentally delayed throughout her life, and to have required cataract   surgery shortly after birth. She currently takes phenobarbital for seizures.   Which of the following would most likely explain this child’s small size?

 

· Question 13

 

A child’s head   circumference is routinely measured on each well visit until what age?

 

· Question 14

 

A 14-year-old female comes   into the office for an urgent visit after taking 10 valium tablets.    Following the initial emergent care and stailization, the most important part   of the management is:

 

· Question 15

 

All of the   following are consistent with peritonsillar abscess except:

 

b.

Trismus

· Question 16

 

Which of the   following complication of strep pharyngitis cannot be prevented with   antibiotics?

 

b.

Glomerulonephritis

· Question 17

 

A 4-year-old   believes there is more juice in a tall, thin glass than a shorter, wider one.   The child has not yet achieved which of the principles of Piaget?

 

b.

Conservation

· Question 18

 

Josh, age 13, has   some enlargement of the scrotum and testes, a reddened scrotal sac, and some   hair texture alteration. His penis is not enlarged. He is in Tanner stage

 

d.

II

· Question 19

 

A breastfed infant   is expected to have a lower incidence of which of the following?

 

e.

Diarrhea

· Question 20

 

A 12-year-old male   states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling   him about the next step in pubertal development, you state:

 

d.

The penis will grow in length and width.

· Question 21

 

You see a 7-year-old   with complaints of “having accidents at night.” Physical exam and   history are unremarkable. Urinalysis, urine culture, and specific gravity are   normal. His parents ask about the best treatment for this problem. The best   response is

 

a.

Fluid restriction and voiding prior to the night may be effective.

· Question 22

 

Chelsea, age 8,   complains that she feels as if something is stuck in her ear. What action is   contraindicated?

 

c.

Flushing the ear with water.

· Question 23

 

By what age should most   children be able to sit well without support?

 

a.

9 months

· Question 24

 

A typically   developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital   development?

 

a.

No pubic hair at all

· Question 25

 

John is diagnosed   with allergic conjunctivitis. What type of discharge do you expect to see   upon exam?

 

c.

Serous and clear

· Question 26

 

Which of the following   vaccines is routinely recommended at 4 months of age?

 

a.

Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP)

· Question 27

 

An 8-year-old female   has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for 2 days with a   fever of 102.9 (F). Which important eye assessment do you need to consider?

 

d.

Ocular mobility

· Question 28

 

Role-play with equipment during the course of the physical exam   would be the most beneficial with which age group?

 

b.

Preschoolers

· Question 29

 

Conductive hearing   loss can be caused by

 

c.

Serous otitis

· Question 30

 

You see a 30-month-old who   speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at   the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the   child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two   languages. You respond:

 

d.

“Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly     intermix the words from both languages until about 3 years of age.”

· Question 31

 

Mark is in the exam   room. You are concerned he may have epiglottitis. In what position do these   patients prefer to sit?

 

d.

Sitting up and leaning forward

· Question 32

 

The mother of a   4-year-old tells you he likes to “play with himself” while playing   and watching television. You advise the mother to

 

a.

Explain to the child that masturbation is something that should be     done in private.

· Question 33

 

Parents bring their   6-month-old son to see you. He is symmetrically less than the 5th   percentile for height, weight and head circumference. He was born at 30   weeks’ gestation and weighed 1000g. He was a planned pregnancy, and his   mother’s prenatal course was uneventful until an automobile accident   initiated the labor. He was ventilated for 3 days in the intensive care unit   but otherwise did well without ongoing problems. He was discharged at 8 weeks   of life. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his small   size?

 

e.

Normal ex-preemie infant growth

· Question 34

 

You assess a   15-year-old’s visual acuity and note her vision to be 20/50 in the right eye.   She asks you what that means and you respond

 

d.

“You can see at 20 feet with your right eye what most people can     see at 50 feet.”

· Question 35

 

During a “well-child” visit,   the parents of a healthy 5-month-old offer a great amount of information.   Which of the following bits of information is of most concern?

 

a.

Limited eye contact with parents.

· Question 36

 

You are performing   an examination of a 3-year-old who is new to your office. Which finding   requires immediate further evaluation?

 

d.

Heart rate     increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration

· Question 37

 

A 9-year-old who   weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat of the   family car. Your best response is

 

c.

The safest place for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is in     the backseat of the car.

· Question 38

 

Which of the   following would not suggest an eating disorder with a   purging component?

 

d.

Finger calluses

· Question 39

 

A fifteen-year-old   female makes a statement to you during a well visit. Which of the following   statements should not be kept confidential?

 

b.

“Sometimes I feel like ending my life.”

· Question 40

 

Sarah, age 15,   presents with pain and pressure over her cheeks and discolored nasal   discharge. You cannot transilluminate the sinuses. You suspect which common   sinus to be affected?

 

d.

Maxillary sinus

· Question 41

 

A 6-month-old infant has been   growing poorly. His parents have changed his formula three times without   success. His examination is remarkable for a pale, emaciated child with   little subcutaneous fat and anterior fontanelle fullness. His laboratory test   results are notable for a hemolytic anemia and prolonged bleeding times.   Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

 

d.

Obtain a sweat chloride concentration

· Question 42

 

Medicaid provides   health insurance coverage to

 

a.

Certain categories of people whose personal income falls below a     certain percentage of the federal poverty level.

· Question 43

 

The mother of a   5-year-old informs you that her daughter cheats when playing board games.   What is the best response?

 

b.

Tell the mother to spend time clarifying board game rules before     starting games.

· Question 44

 

Which of the   following substances is associated with pupillary constriction?

 

b.

Heroin

· Question 45

 

A 7-year-old has just been   diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Her parents   report that she is doing poorly in school and is disruptive in the classroom.   They ask you what they can do. Your best response is:

 

a.

“Use a consistent approach with behavioral cues both at home and     at school.”

· Question 46

 

Flourescein staining   of the eye is used to detect a

 

c.

Corneal abrasion

· Question 47

0 out of 1 points

 

Luke, a 17-month-old, failed   treatment with amoxicillin for otitis media. At the two-week recheck, his TM   was still erythematous and you cannot see the landmarks. He has persistent   nasal congestion, he is not sleeping at night, and he has a 101°F fever. What   is the next best step for Luke?

 

a.

Ceftriaxone and an antihistamine

· Question 48

 

All of the   following may predispose a patient to thrush except:

 

c.

Poor oral hygiene

· Question 49

 

Head and chest   circumferences should be equal at:

 

c.

1 year of age

· Question 50

 

The diagnostic   criteria for autism spectrum disorder include all of the following except

 

c.

Tolerance of flexibility with routines

· Question 51

 

Which of the   following statements about bullying is true?

 

b.

It occurs most commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess,     etc.).

· Question 52

 

The most likely   weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6-1/2 pounds would be:

 

a.

19 to 20 pounds

· Question 53

 

An eye that deviates   in when covered but that returns to midline when uncovered is an

 

c.

esophoria

· Question 54

 

A 7-year-old boy with mental   retardation was born at home at 26 weeks gestation to a 28-year-old mother   who had received no prenatal care. An evaluation is likely to suggest his MR   is related to which of the following?

 

e.

Complications of prematurity

· Question 55

 

The most common   substance used in middle school is

 

a.

Alcohol

· Question 56

 

A 2-day-old infant has   significant nasal and rectal bleeding. He was delivered by a midwife at home;   the pregnancy was without complications. His Apgar scores were 9 at 1 minute   and 9 at 5 minutes. He has breastfed well and has not required a health care   professional visit since birth. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies   might explain his condition?

 

a.

Vitamin K

· Question 57

 

Tammy, age 3, is at   the office for her well-child visit. She has trouble removing her own shirt   as requested. Her mother yanks off her shirt after smacking her wrist and   saying, “you must do as you’re told quickly.” Which action is   indicated?

 

d.

Observe Tammy for signs of child abuse.

· Question 58

 

A 4-month-old child has poor   weight gain. Her current weight is less than the 5th percentile, height about   the 10th percentile, and head circumference at the 50th percentile. The   planned pregnancy resulted in a normal, spontaneous, vaginal delivery; mother   and child were discharged after a 48-hour hospitalization. Feeding is via   breast and bottle; the quantity seems sufficient. The child has had no   illness. The examination is unremarkable except for the child’s small size.   Screening laboratory shows the hemoglobin and hematocrit are 11 mg/dL and 33%   respectively, with a platelet count of 198,000/mm3. Serum electrolyte levels   are sodium 140, chloride 105, potassium 3.5, bicarbonate 17, blood urea   nitrogen 15, and creatinine 0.3. Liver function tests are normal. Urinalysis   reveals a pH of 8 with occasional epithelial cells but no white blood cells,   bacteria, protein, ketones, or reducing substances. Which of the following is   the most appropriate therapy for this child?

 

d.

Oral supplementation with bicarbonate

· Question 59

 

A teenage female who   is overweight has moderate acne on the face and chest, and irregular menses.   Elevation of which laboratory test provides the test evidence of polycystic   ovarian syndrome?

 

a.

free testosterone

· Question 60

 

A 2-year-old boy has been   slightly less than the 50th percentile for weight, height and head   circumference, but in the last 6 months he has fallen to slightly less than   the 25th percentile for weight. The pregnancy was normal, his development is   as expected, and the family reports no psychosocial problems. The mother says   that he is now a finicky eater (wants only macaroni and cheese at all meals),   but she insists that he eat a variety of foods. The meals are marked by much   frustration for everyone. His examination is normal. Which of the following   is the best next step in his care?

 

c.

Reassurance and counseling for family about childhood normal     developmental stage

· Question 61

 

I like to use my pincer grasp that involves the ablitily to pick   up a small object such as a raisin or piece of cereal with the thumb and   forefinger, and that is mastered around what age?

 

b.

9 months

· Question 62

 

An 11-year-old girl   has dizziness, pupillary dilation, nausea, fever, techycardia, and facial   flushing. She says she can “see” sound and “hear” colors.   The agent likely to be responsible is which of the following?

 

d.

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

· Question 63

 

An 8-year-old female is   brought into the office by her mother. She has complaints of fever and sore   throat for the past 2 days. She denies difficulty swallowing but has loss of   appetite and mild diarrhea. A few classmates have similar symptoms. A review of   systems reveals clear nasal drainage, dry cough, and hoarseness. On exam she   has a 101.5 temperature, 3+ erythematous tonsils, and anterior cervical   lymphadenopathy. What is the likely diagnosis?

 

c.

Viral pharyngitis

· Question 64

 

Appropriate advice for a   mother of a 2-week-old child here for a “well child” visit includes which of   the following?

 

c.

Sleep in the supine position is recommended

· Question 65

0 out of 1 points

 

What is the most   traumatic, yet common form and of child abuse seen in pediatric primary care?

 

d.

Soft tissue injuries

· Question 66

 

Which of the   following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and   adolescents to have healthy sexual development?

 

a.

Begin anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal     development in the early school-age visits.

· Question 67

 

Appropriate   anticipatory guidance for the parents of an 8-year-old girl includes

 

c.

Information that the child will start to value personal idols and role     models.

· Question 68

 

Max, a 9-year-old   boy, is a very active child with limited self-control. He is easily   distracted and has difficulty staying on task. You determine that he should   have a neurodevelopmental evaluation because he is showing signs of

 

d.

ADHD

· Question 69

 

Which of the   following injuries is most likely to be caused by abuse of a toddler?

 

c.

A displaced posterior rib fracture.

· Question 70

 

Which of the   following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child?

 

a.

Erikson’s initiative versus guilt

· Question 71

 

While assessing the   skin of an infant, you note cafe-au-lait spots. Which disease should be ruled   out?

 

c.

Neurofibromatosis

· Question 72

 

The first sign of   the onset of female puberty is usually:

 

d.

Breast buds

· Question 73

 

A mother states that   her 4-year-old son constantly grinds his teeth at night. You document this   as:

 

d.

Bruxism

· Question 74

 

Which of the   following characterizes middle adolescence (14 to 16 years old)?

 

c.

Intense peer     group involvement, feelings of immortality, sexual experimentation

· Question 75

 

I can roll over, grasp a   rattle, and reach for things and have begun feeding myself finger foods, but   I can’t wave bye-bye yet. How old am I?

 

a.

6 months

· Question 76

 

You would be   concerned about the language development of a child who:

 

b.

Stutters when excited or tired at the age of 7

· Question 77

 

Most children can   independently get dressed by themselves by age:

 

d.

5 years

· Question 78

 

A differential   diagnosis for child abuse would include all of the   following except.

 

b.

Prader-Wlli syndrome

· Question 79

 

Which of the   following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?

 

b.

Unilateral vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid in a 3-week old.

· Question 80

 

A 2-year-old child weighs 34   lb. What type of car seat should the child use?

 

b.

A forward-facing car seat in the back of the vehicle.

· Question 81

 

An expected   milestone of a 4-year-old is the ability to

 

c.

Copy a cross

· Question 82

 

Sam has an otitis   media. He also presents with conjunctivitis. This is due to which organism?

 

a.

Haemophilus influenza

· Question 83

 

A 14-year   old has ataxia. He is brought to the local emergency department, where he   appears euphoric, emotionally labile, and disoriented. Many notice his   abusive language. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible   for his condition?

 

a.

Alcohol

· Question 84

 

What method can be   safely used to remove cerumen in a 15-month-old child’s ear?

 

d.

Irrigation using warm water from a soft bulb syringe

· Question 85

 

The appropriate lab   tests in assessment of cervical adenitis include all of the   following except:

 

a.

Blood culture

· Question 86

 

Which of the   following represents normal sequencing of development in a toddler?

 

b.

Feeds self, can undress self with help, washes hands, imitates     housework.

· Question 87

 

You see a young child who has   tripled her birth weight and looks for hidden objects. When given blocks, she   places one in each hand. She has a fine pincer grasp. On the floor, she   walks around holding objects and is trying to take independent steps. This   child is most likely how old?

 

c.

12 months

· Question 88

 

During a domestic health   assessment, the CDC recommends screening every refugee child for which of the   following diseases?

 

d.

tuberculosis

· Question 89

 

A 4-month-old   presents with both eyes turning inward. What is this called?

 

b.

Esotropia

· Question 90

 

A mother brings her   4-week-old infant into the office because she noticed small yellow-white   glistening bumps on her infant’s gums. She says they look like teeth but is   concerned that they may be cancer. You diagnose these bumps as

 

d.

Epstein’s pearls

· Question 91

 

The parents of a   7-year-old are concerned their son does not want to attend school. Which of   the historical findings are not usually associated with the   diagnosis of school phobia?

 

d.

Chronic medical illness

· Question 92

 

You are doing a   kindergarten physical on a 5-year-old girl. Which of the following scenarios   would suggest the child is not ready to start kindergarten in the fall?

 

d.

Counts to 4 and draws a person with three parts.

· Question 93

 

Which of the   following children should be referred for a comprehensive developmental   evaluation?

 

a.

A 3-year-old who consistently tracks at the 5th percentile for height     and weight since birth.

· Question 94

 

Sarah, 7 years old,   is in the office today. All of the following are acceptable management   options for allergic rhinitis, except

 

b.

Nasal neosynephrine

· Question 95

 

You see a 3-year-old for a   well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very   easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry,   and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which   aspect of temperament?

 

a.

Rhythmicity

· Question 96

 

You see a healthy   18-month-old for a well-child visit. At the 12-month visit he received the   diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) third dose; hepatitis B   second dose; measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) first dose; injected   poliovirus (IPV) second dose; pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) fourth dose; and   Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) fourth dose. Which of the following do   you order today?

 

c.

DTaP, varicella, hepatitis A, and hepatitis B

· Question 97

 

The results of the hemoglobin   A1c test are LESS reliable in children with which of the following   conditions? (Hint: select two)

 

Selected     Answers:

a.

Cystic Fibrosis

 

b.

Sickle Cell Disease

· Question 98

 

You see a 5-month-old who is   fussy, has interrupted sleep, and is drooling. You note large lower lateral   incisor bulges. You recommend:

 

· Question 99

 

A 7-month-old male is found   to have a spiral fracture of the femur that his father says he got by   climbing onto a chair and then jumping off. Which of the following statements   is true regarding this situation?

 

· Question 100

 

The nurse   practitioner role was initially established to

 

· Question 101

 

Which of the following is a   true contraindication of vaccinating a child?

 

NURS 6541 Midterm Exam / NURS 6541 Midterm Exam (Latest): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University

 

· Question 1 

1 out of 1 points

 

Medicaid provides   health insurance coverage to

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Certain categories of     people whose personal income falls below a certain percentage of the     federal poverty level.

· Question 2 

1 out of 1 points

 

A differential   diagnosis for child abuse would include all of the following except.

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Prader-Wlli     syndrome

· Question 3 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following injuries is most likely to be caused by abuse of a toddler?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

A displaced     posterior rib fracture.

· Question 4 

1 out of 1 points

 

You are doing a   kindergarten physical on a 5-year-old girl. Which of the following scenarios   would suggest the child is not ready to start kindergarten in the fall?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Counts to 4 and     draws a person with three parts.

· Question 5 

1 out of 1 points

 

The first sign of   the onset of female puberty is usually:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Breast buds

· Question 6 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a   7-year-old with complaints of “having accidents at night.” Physical   exam and history are unremarkable. Urinalysis, urine culture, and specific   gravity are normal. His parents ask about the best treatment for this   problem. The best response is

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Fluid restriction     and voiding prior to the night may be effective.

· Question 7 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following statements about bullying is true?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

It occurs most     commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess, etc.).

· Question 8 

1 out of 1 points

 

The mother of a   5-year-old informs you that her daughter cheats when playing board games.   What is the best response?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Tell the mother to spend     time clarifying board game rules before starting games.

· Question 9 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following conditions requires urgent inpatient admission?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Epiglottis

· Question 10 

1 out of 1 points

 

All of the following are consistent with   peritonsillar abscess except: 

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Trismus

· Question 11 

1 out of 1 points

 

The parents of a   7-year-old are concerned their son does not want to attend school. Which of   the historical findings are not usually associated with the diagnosis   of school phobia?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Chronic medical     illness

· Question 12 

1 out of 1 points

 

You are performing   an examination of a 3-year-old who is new to your office. Which finding   requires immediate further evaluation?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Heart rate     increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration.

· Question 13 

1 out of 1 points

 

A child’s head   circumference is routinely measured on each well visit until what age?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

2 years

· Question 14 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which   of the following children has abnormal language development?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Speech is 50%     understandable at 36 months of age

· Question 15 

1 out of 1 points

 

Please interpret   the following labs for an adolescent. The adolescent has a history of obesity   and acanthosis nigricans.

 

Test

Results

 

Fasting blood     glucose

112 mg/dL

 

2 hour     postprandial glucose

138 mg/dL

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Impaired fasting     glucose, postprandial glucose within normal limits

· Question 16 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Erikson’s     initiative versus guilt

· Question 17 

1 out of 1 points

 

The diagnostic   criteria for autism spectrum disorder include all of the following except

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Tolerance of     flexibility with routines

· Question 18 

1 out of 1 points

 

Conductive hearing   loss can be caused by

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Serous otitis

· Question 19 

1 out of 1 points

 

The most common   substance used in middle school is

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Alcohol

· Question 20 

1 out of 1 points

 

The results of the   hemoglobin A1c test are LESS reliable in children with which of the following   conditions? (Hint: select two)

 

Selected Answers:

a.

Cystic Fibrosis

 

b.

Sickle Cell Disease

· Question 21 

1 out of 1 points

 

A teenage female   who is overweight has moderate acne on the face and chest, and irregular   menses. Elevation of which laboratory test provides the test evidence of   polycystic ovarian syndrome?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

free testosterone

· Question 22 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark is in the exam   room. You are concerned he may have epiglottitis. In what position do these   patients prefer to sit?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Sitting up and     leaning forward

· Question 23 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 30-month-old who speaks   in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low   end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s   development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You   respond:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

“Your     child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the words     from both languages until about 3 years of age.”

· Question 24 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following characterizes middle adolescence (14 to 16 years old)?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Intense peer     group involvement, feelings of immortality, sexual experimentation

· Question 25 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 4-year-old for a   well-child visit. He has received four diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular   pertussis vaccines (DTaP); three injected polio vaccines (IPV); one measles,   mumps, and rubella vaccine (MMR); one varicella vaccine; and two hepatitis B   (Hep B) vaccines. What do you order today?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

DTaP, IPV, MMR,     and Varivax

· Question 26 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 14-year old has ataxia. He is   brought to the local emergency department, where he appears euphoric,   emotionally labile, and a bit disoriented. He has nystagmus and   hypersalivation. Many notice his abusive language. Which of the following   agents is most likely responsible for his condition?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Alcohol

· Question 27 

1 out of 1 points

 

Parents bring their 6-month-old   son to see you. He is symmetrically less than the 5th percentile for   height, weight and head circumference. He was born at 30 weeks’ gestation and   weighed 1000g. He was a planned pregnancy, and his mother’s prenatal course was   uneventful until an automobile accident initiated the labor. He was   ventilated for 3 days in the intensive care unit but otherwise did well   without ongoing problems. He was discharged at 8 weeks of life. Which of the   following is the most likely explanation for his small size?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Normal ex-preemie     infant growth

· Question 28 

1 out of 1 points

 

A fifteen-year-old   female makes a statement to you during a well visit. Which of the following   statements should not be kept confidential?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

“Sometimes I     feel like ending my life.”

· Question 29 

1 out of 1 points

 

Most children can   independently get dressed by themselves by age:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

5 years

· Question 30 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 13-month-old child is noted to   be at the 25th percentile for weight, the 10th percentile for height, and   less than the 5th percentile for head circumference. She was born   at term. She was noted to have a small head at birth, to be developmentally   delayed throughout her life, and to have required cataract surgery shortly   after birth. She currently takes phenobarbital for seizures. Which of the   following would most likely explain this child’s small size?

 

Selected Answer:

e.

Congenital cytomegalovirus     infection

· Question 31 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 4-month-old child has poor weight gain. Her current   weight is less than the 5th percentile, height about the 10th percentile, and   head circumference at the 50th percentile. The planned pregnancy resulted in   a normal, spontaneous, vaginal delivery; mother and child were discharged   after a 48-hour hospitalization. Feeding is via breast and bottle; the   quantity seems sufficient. The child has had no illness. The examination is   unremarkable except for the child’s small size. Screening laboratory shows   the hemoglobin and hematocrit are 11 mg/dL and 33% respectively, with a   platelet count of 198,000/mm3. Serum electrolyte levels are sodium 140,   chloride 105, potassium 3.5, bicarbonate 17, blood urea nitrogen 15, and   creatinine 0.3. Liver function tests are normal. Urinalysis reveals a pH of 8   with occasional epithelial cells but no white blood cells, bacteria, protein,   ketones, or reducing substances. Which of the following is the most   appropriate therapy for this child?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Oral supplementation     with bicarbonate

· Question 32 

1 out of 1 points

 

Chelsea, age 8,   complains that she feels as if something is stuck in her ear. What action is   contraindicated?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Flushing the ear     with water.

· Question 33 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following substances is associated with pupillary constriction?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Heroin

· Question 34 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following children should be referred for a comprehensive developmental   evaluation?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

A 3-year-old who     consistently tracks at the 5th percentile for height and weight since     birth.

· Question 35 

0 out of 1 points

 

John is diagnosed   with allergic conjunctivitis. What type of discharge do you expect to see   upon exam?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Serous and clear

· Question 36 

1 out of 1 points

 

You diagnose a   16-year-old with acute otitis media and need to prescribe an antibiotic with   beta-lactamase coverage. What do you choose?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

amoxicillin and     potassium clavulanate (Augmentin)

· Question 37 

1 out of 1 points

 

A new mom calls the   NP on postpartum day 5. She reports her newborn wants to nurse for 30 minutes   every 1-1/2 to 2 hours. Which of these is the best response?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

“This is a     very healthy breastfeeding pattern. Be sure to rest when you can. You are     doing a great job.”

· Question 38 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following represents normal sequencing of development in a toddler?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Feeds self, can     undress self with help, washes hands, imitates housework.

· Question 39 

1 out of 1 points

 

By what age should most children   be able to sit well without support?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

9 months

· Question 40 

1 out of 1 points

 

A common feature of   2-year-old behavior is:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Stranger anxiety

· Question 41 

1 out of 1 points

 

You assess a   15-year-old’s visual acuity and note her vision to be 20/50 in the right eye.   She asks you what that means and you respond

 

Selected Answer:

d.

“You can see     at 20 feet with your right eye what most people can see at 50 feet.”

· Question 42 

1 out of 1 points

 

Flourescein   staining of the eye is used to detect a

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Corneal abrasion

· Question 43 

1 out of 1 points

 

Blood pressure   should be measured at well-child visits starting at age:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

3 years

· Question 44 

1 out of 1 points

 

Sarah, 7 years old,   is in the office today. All of the following are acceptable management   options for allergic rhinitis, except

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Nasal     neosynephrine

· Question 45 

1 out of 1 points

 

During a “well-child” visit, the   parents of a healthy 5-month-old offer a great amount of information. Which   of the following bits of information is of most concern?

 

Selected Answer:

b. Limited eye contact with     parents.

· Question 46 

1 out of 1 points

 

At what age would a   child be expected to remember a string of numbers and repeat them backwards?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

12 years

· Question 47 

1 out of 1 points

 

During a domestic   health assessment, the CDC recommends screening every refugee child for which   of the following diseases?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

tuberculosis

· Question 48 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following signs may indicate a baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Sleepiness,     jaundice, and vomiting

· Question 49 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Unilateral     vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid in a 3-week old.

· Question 50 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following statements regarding adolescent substance use is true?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Tobacco is the     most commonly abused substance during adolescence.

· Question 51 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following vaccines is   routinely recommended at 4 months of age?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Diphtheria,     tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP)

· Question 52 

1 out of 1 points

 

The nurse   practitioner role was initially established to

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Improve access to     care and partially solve physician shortage.

· Question 53 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark, a   10-year-old, has a lot of ear pain. He does not want anyone to touch it and   is crying in pain. The ear canal is swollen and exudate is present. The TM is   normal. Mark should be instructed to do which of the following?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Keep ear dry     until symptoms improve.

· Question 54 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 4-year-old   believes there is more juice in a tall, thin glass than a shorter, wider one.   The child has not yet achieved which of the principles of Piaget?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Conservation

· Question 55 

1 out of 1 points

 

Early   reflexive responses that are not related to survival include all but:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Swimming

· Question 56 

1 out of 1 points

 

You would be   concerned about the language development of a child who:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Stutters when excited or     tired at the age of 7

· Question 57 

1 out of 1 points

 

The appropriate lab   tests in assessment of cervical adenitis include all of the following except:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Blood culture

· Question 58 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 4-month-old   presents with both eyes turning inward. What is this called?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Esotropia

· Question 59 

1 out of 1 points

 

An 8-year-old female is brought   into the office by her mother. She has complaints of fever and sore throat   for the past 2 days. She denies difficulty swallowing but has loss of   appetite and mild diarrhea. A few classmates have similar symptoms. A review of   systems reveals clear nasal drainage, dry cough, and hoarseness. On exam she   has a 101.5 temperature, 3+ erythematous tonsils, and anterior cervical   lymphadenopathy. What is the likely diagnosis?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Viral pharyngitis

· Question 60 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 13-year-old who reports   she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability to   successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget developmental   stage?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Concrete     operational

· Question 61 

1 out of 1 points

 

An 8-year-old   female has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for 2 days   with a fever of 102.9 (F). Which important eye assessment do you need to   consider?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Ocular mobility

· Question 62 

1 out of 1 points

 

Tammy, age 3, is at   the office for her well-child visit. She has trouble removing her own shirt   as requested. Her mother yanks off her shirt after smacking her wrist and saying,   “you must do as you’re told quickly.” Which action is indicated?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Observe Tammy for     signs of child abuse.

· Question 63 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is a true contraindication of   vaccinating a child?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Previous     vaccination reaction that consisted of wheezing and hypotension

· Question 64 

1 out of 1 points

 

The parent of a 2-year-old tells   you her daughter recently started having breath-holding spells. She tells you   the older sibling “did the same thing” and asks you for help. You advise her   that after a breath-holding event:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Act as if nothing     abnormal happened.

· Question 65 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a healthy 18-month-old for   a well-child visit. At the 12-month visit he received the diphtheria,   tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) third dose; hepatitis B second dose;   measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) first dose; injected poliovirus (IPV) second   dose; pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) fourth dose; and Haemophilus influenzae   type B (Hib) fourth dose. Which of the following do you order today?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

DTaP, varicella,     hepatitis A, and hepatitis B

· Question 66 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 7-year-old boy with mental retardation was born at home   at 26 weeks gestation to a 28-year-old mother who had received no prenatal   care. An evaluation is likely to suggest his MR is related to which of the   following?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Complications of     prematurity

· Question 67 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which is the   correct order for introduction of solid foods to an infant?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Cereal,     vegetables, fruits, and meats

· Question 68 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following foreign body in the nose requires immediate removal?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

battery

· Question 69 

1 out of 1 points

 

A Mantoux test in a   child with no risk factors is considered positive with a reaction of:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

at least 15 mm     induration

· Question 70 

1 out of 1 points

 

Parents bring their 16-year-old   daughter for a “well-child” checkup. She looks normal on examination. As part   of your routine care you plan a urinalysis. The father pulls you aside and   asks you to secretly run a UDS on his daughter. Which of the following is the   most appropriate course of action?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Explore the     reasons for the request with the parents and the adolescent and perform a     UDS with the adolescent’s permission if the history warrants.

· Question 71 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-year-old boy has been slightly   less than the 50th percentile for weight, height and head circumference, but   in the last 6 months he has fallen to slightly less than the 25th percentile   for weight. The pregnancy was normal, his development is as expected, and the   family reports no psychosocial problems. The mother says that he is now a   finicky eater (wants only macaroni and cheese at all meals), but she insists   that he eat a variety of foods. The meals are marked by much frustration for   everyone. His examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next   step in his care?

 

Selected Answer:

e.

Reassurance and     counseling for family about childhood normal developmental stage

· Question 72 

1 out of 1 points

 

You receive a phone call from the   mother of a 2-year-old. She states her child has sleep refusal. You suggest   the child should be able to:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Set his own     bedtime based on his internal clock.

· Question 73 

1 out of 1 points

 

All of the following may predispose a   patient to thrush except: 

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Poor oral hygiene

· Question 74 

1 out of 1 points

 

Sarah, age 15,   presents with pain and pressure over her cheeks and discolored nasal   discharge. You cannot transilluminate the sinuses. You suspect which common   sinus to be affected?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Maxillary sinus

· Question 75 

1 out of 1 points

 

I can walk well on tiptoes, my   speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I cannot balance on   one foot for 1 second. I am:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

2-1/2 years old (30 months)

· Question 76 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following screenings should adolescents have done annually?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Psychosocial     screening, blood pressure, body mass index

· Question 77 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 6-month-old infant has been   growing poorly. His parents have changed his formula three times without   success. His examination is remarkable for a pale, emaciated child with   little subcutaneous fat and anterior fontanelle fullness. His laboratory test   results are notable for a hemolytic anemia and prolonged bleeding times.   Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Obtain a sweat chloride     concentration

· Question 78 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 3-year-old for a   well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very   easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry,   and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which aspect   of temperament?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Rhythmicity

· Question 79 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 12-year-old male   states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling   him about the next step in pubertal development, you state:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

The penis will     grow in length and width.

· Question 80 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 14-year-old female comes into   the office for an urgent visit after taking 10 valium tablets.    Following the initial emergent care and stailization, the most important part   of the management is:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Assessing the     family supports available to the child.

· Question 81 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-year-old child weighs 34 lb.   What type of car seat should the child use?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

A forward-facing car seat     in the back of the vehicle.

· Question 82 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and   adolescents to have healthy sexual development?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Begin     anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal development     in the early school-age visits.

· Question 83 

1 out of 1 points

 

Epiglottitis has   decreased due to which immunization?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Hib

· Question 84 

1 out of 1 points

 

Role-play with   equipment during the course of the physical exam would be the most beneficial   with which age group?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Preschoolers

· Question 85 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-day-old   newbornwith conjunctivitis is likely due to

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Gonorrhea

· Question 86 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 9-year-old who   weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat of the   family car. Your best response is

 

Selected Answer:

d.

The safest place     for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is in the backseat of the     car.

· Question 87 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following would not suggest an eating disorder with a purging   component?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Finger calluses

· Question 88 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 6-month-old for a   well-child visit and the mother tells you the child’s grandmother recommends   that she give the infant whole milk and eggs when he starts solids. What   should you tell the mother?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

The baby should     remain on infant formula and stage 2 and 3 baby foods for now.

· Question 89 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-day-old infant has significant   nasal and rectal bleeding. He was delivered by a midwife at home; the   pregnancy was without complications. His Apgar scores were 9 at 1 minute and   9 at 5 minutes. He has breastfed well and has not required a health care   professional visit since birth. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies   might explain his condition?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Vitamin K

· Question 90 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 5-month-old who is   fussy, has interrupted sleep, and is drooling. You note large lower lateral   incisor bulges. You recommend:

 

Selected Answer:

e.

A and D

· Question 91 

1 out of 1 points

 

The most likely   weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6-1/2 pounds would be:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

19 to 20 pounds

· Question 92 

1 out of 1 points

 

Head and chest   circumferences should be equal at:

 

Selected Answer:

d.

1 years of age

· Question 93 

1 out of 1 points

 

An 11-year-old girl   has dizziness, pupillary dilation, nausea, fever, techycardia, and facial   flushing. She says she can “see” sound and “hear” colors.   The agent likely to be responsible is which of the following?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Lysergic acid     diethylamide (LSD)

· Question 94 

1 out of 1 points

 

FIRST-LINE therapy   for preschoolers (4-5 years of age) diagnosed with attention-deficit   hyperactive disorder is:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Behavior therapy

· Question 95 

1 out of 1 points

 

Max, a 9-year-old   boy, is a very active child with limited self-control. He is easily   distracted and has difficulty staying on task. You determine that he should   have a neurodevelopmental evaluation because he is showing signs of

 

Selected Answer:

a.

ADHD

· Question 96 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 3-year-old (37 months) refuses   to have bowel movements on the toilet. He is bladder trained. He goes and   hides and squats when having bowel movements. Positive encouragement and   praise is not working. You advise:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Tell the parent     this is normal; the child will eventually train himself, but it is     difficult to wait.

· Question 97 

1 out of 1 points

 

A typically   developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital   development?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

No pubic hair at     all

· Question 98 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following are important considerations when   screening child refugees for tuberculosis? SELECT TWO (2)

 

Selected Answers:

c.

IGRA may be     falsely positive in children who have autoimmune disorders.

 

d.

Mantoux TST     should not be used in a child who has received a Bacille Calmette-Guerin     vaccination.

· Question 99 

1 out of 1 points

 

The mother of a   4-year-old tells you he likes to “play with himself” while playing   and watching television. You advise the mother to

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Explain to the     child that masturbation is something that should be done in private.

· Question 100 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 7-year-old has just been   diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Her parents   report that she is doing poorly in school and is disruptive in the classroom.   They ask you what they can do. Your best response is:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

“Use a     consistent approach with behavioral cues both at home and at school.”

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ASSESSMENT INFORMATION for students

Throughout your training we are committed to your learning by providing a training and assessment framework that ensures the knowledge gained through training is translated into practical on the job improvements.

You are going to be assessed for:

Your skills and knowledge using written and observation activities that apply to your workplace.

Your ability to apply your learning.

Your ability to recognise common principles and actively use these on the job.

All of your assessment and training is provided as a positive learning tool. Your assessor will guide your learning and provide feedback on your responses to the assessment materials until you have been deemed competent in this unit.

How you will be assessed

The process we follow is known as competency-based assessment. This means that evidence of your current skills and knowledge will be measured against national standards of best practice, not against the learning you have undertaken either recently or in the past. Some of the assessment will be concerned with how you apply your skills and knowledge in your workplace, and some in the training room as required by each unit.

The assessment tasks have been designed to enable you to demonstrate the required skills and knowledge and produce the critical evidence to successfully demonstrate competency at the required standard.

Your assessor will ensure that you are ready for assessment and will explain the assessment process. Your assessment tasks will outline the evidence to be collected and how it will be collected, for example; a written activity, case study, or demonstration and observation.

The assessor will also have determined if you have any special needs to be considered during assessment. Changes can be made to the way assessment is undertaken to account for special needs and this is called making Reasonable Adjustment.

 

What happens if your result is ‘Not Yet Competent’ for one or more assessment tasks?

Our assessment process is designed to answer the question “has the desired learning outcome been achieved yet?” If the answer is “Not yet”, then we work with you to see how we can get there.

In the case that one or more of your assessments has been marked ‘NYC’, your trainer will provide you with the necessary feedback and guidance, in order for you to resubmit your responses.

 

What if you disagree on the assessment outcome?

You can appeal against a decision made in regards to your assessment. An appeal should only be made if you have been assessed as ‘Not Yet Competent’ against a specific unit and you feel you have sufficient grounds to believe that you are entitled to be assessed as competent. You must be able to adequately demonstrate that you have the skills and experience to be able to meet the requirements of units you are appealing the assessment of.

Your trainer will outline the appeals process, which is available to the student. You can request a form to make an appeal and submit it to your trainer, the course coordinator, or the administration officer. The RTO will examine the appeal and you will be advised of the outcome within 14 days. Any additional information you wish to provide may be attached to the appeal form.

 

What if I believe I am already competent before training?

If you believe you already have the knowledge and skills to be able to demonstrate competence in this unit, speak with your trainer, as you may be able to apply for Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

 

Assessor Responsibilities

Assessors need to be aware of their responsibilities and carry them out appropriately. To do this they need to:

Ensure that participants are assessed fairly based on the outcome of the language, literacy and numeracy review completed at enrolment.

Ensure that all documentation is signed by the student, trainer, workplace supervisor and assessor when units and certificates are complete, to ensure that there is no follow-up required from an administration perspective.

Ensure that their own qualifications are current.

When required, request the manager or supervisor to determine that the student is ‘satisfactorily’ demonstrating the requirements for each unit. ‘Satisfactorily’ means consistently meeting the standard expected from an experienced operator.

When required, ensure supervisors and students sign off on third party assessment forms or third party report.

Follow the recommendations from moderation and validation meetings.

How should I format my assessments?

Your assessments should be typed in a 11 or 12 size font for ease of reading. You must include a footer on each page with the student name, unit code and date. Your assessment needs to be submitted as a hardcopy or electronic copy as requested by your trainer.

 

How long should my answers be?

The length of your answers will be guided by the description in each assessment, for example:

Type of Answer	Answer Guidelines
Short Answer	4 typed lines = 50 words, or 5 lines of handwritten text
Long Answer	8 typed lines = 100 words, or 10 lines of handwritten text = of a foolscap page
Brief Report	500 words = 1 page typed report, or 50 lines of handwritten text = 1foolscap handwritten pages
Mid Report	1,000 words = 2 page typed report 100 lines of handwritten text = 3 foolscap handwritten pages
Long Report	2,000 words = 4 page typed report 200 lines of handwritten text = 6 foolscap handwritten pages

 

How should I reference the sources of information I use in my assessments?

Include a reference list at the end of your work on a separate page. You should reference the sources you have used in your assessments in the Harvard Style. For example:

Website Name – Page or Document Name, Retrieved insert the date. Webpage link.

For a book: Author surname, author initial Year of publication, Title of book, Publisher, City, State

assessment guide

The following table shows you how to achieve a satisfactory result against the criteria for each type of assessment task.

Assessment Method	Satisfactory Result	Non-Satisfactory Result
You will receive an overall result of Competent or Not Yet Competent for the unit. The assessment process is made up of a number of assessment methods. You are required to achieve a satisfactory result in each of these to be deemed competent overall. Your assessment may include the following assessment types.
Questions	All questions answered correctly	Incorrect answers for one or more questions
	Answers address the question in full; referring to appropriate sources from your workbook and/or workplace	Answers do not address the question in full. Does not refer to appropriate or correct sources.
Third Party Report	Supervisor or manager observes work performance and confirms that you consistently meet the standards expected from an experienced operator	Could not demonstrate consistency. Could not demonstrate the ability to achieve the required standard
Written Activity	The assessor will mark the activity against the detailed guidelines/instructions	Does not follow guidelines/instructions
	Attachments if requested are attached	Requested supplementary items are not attached
	All requirements of the written activity are addressed/covered.	Response does not address the requirements in full; is missing a response for one or more areas.
	Responses must refer to appropriate sources from your workbook and/or workplace	One or more of the requirements are answered incorrectly. Does not refer to or utilise appropriate or correct sources of information
Observation	All elements, criteria, knowledge and performance evidence and critical aspects of evidence, are demonstrated at the appropriate AQF level	Could not demonstrate elements, criteria, knowledge and performance evidence and/or critical aspects of evidence, at the appropriate AQF level
Case Study	All comprehension questions answered correctly; demonstrating an application of knowledge of the topic case study.	Lack of demonstrated comprehension of the underpinning knowledge (remove) required to complete the case study questions correctly. One or more questions are answered incorrectly.
	Answers address the question in full; referring to appropriate sources from your workbook and/or workplace	Answers do not address the question in full; do not refer to appropriate sources.

 

Assessment cover sheet

Assessment Cover Sheet
Student’s name:
Assessors Name:		Date:
Is the Student ready for assessment?	Yes	No
Has the assessment process been explained?	Yes	No
Does the Student understand which evidence is to be collected and how?	Yes	No
Have the Student’s rights and the appeal system been fully explained?	Yes	No
Have you discussed any special needs to be considered during assessment?	Yes	No
The following documents must be completed and attached
Written Activity Checklist The student will complete the written activity provided to them by the assessor. The Written Activity Checklist will be completed by the assessor.	S	NYS
Observation / Demonstration The student will demonstrate a range of skills and the assessor will observe where appropriate to the unit. The Observation Checklist will be completed by the assessor.	S	NYS
Questioning Checklist The student will answer a range of questions either verbally or written. The Questioning Checklist will be completed by the assessor.	S	NYS
I agree to undertake assessment in the knowledge that information gathered will only be used for professional development purposes and can only be accessed by the RTO:
Overall Outcome Competent Not yet Competent
Student Signature:	Date:
Assessor Signature:	Date:

 

 

 

written activity

For this assessment, you will need to perform the following tasks. These tasks will need to be completed and submitted in a professional, word processed, format. Each question must be 100 words minimum in length.

1. Discuss the basic human needs that we all have.

These are the basic human needs that every human being have: 1. Physical: Physical needs 2. Psychological 3. Spiritual: Ceremonial observances Formal and informal religious observance Need for privacy Need for an appropriate environment to reflect and / or participate in spiritual activities Culturally appropriate spiritual support assists care recipients to express their unique spirituality in an open and non-judgemental environment by helping them to maintain important practices, beliefs and networks 4. Cultural: RECOGNISE AND RESPECT THE PERSON’S SOCIAL, CULTURAL AND SPIRITUAL DIFFERENCES: In all cases when working in a community service or health environment you will need to consider and respect a person’s social, cultural and spiritual differences if you are going to work with them effectively Ceremonial and festive observances  Dress and dietary observance  Need for continued interaction with cultural communityIt is then the care workers role to ensure that dignity is respected by giving them the privacy they require. It is important that you ensure your work practices accommodate a client’s modesty and privacy according to cultural requirements. Accept cultural and religious ceremonies and link in to them Celebrate different cultures by sharing food from that culture or having cultural days Get guest speakers to talk about different cultures Learn a language (even a few words) to make people feel more welcome 5. Sexual: From the discussion above, it is clear that you should avoid imposing your own values and attitudes regarding sexuality on others, including your clients. Your own values may not be consistent with those of your client, and if you impose these conflicting values on your client this can cause them problems – including psychological harm. RECOGNISE, RESPECT AND ACCOMMODATE THE PERSON’S EXPRESSIONS OF IDENTITY AND SEXUALITY AS APPROPRIATE IN THE CONTEXT OF THEIR AGE OR STAGE OF LIFEA client’s circumstances may have a significant impact on their expression of identity and sexuality. Expression of identity and sexuality may include: Access to assistive / protective devices Love and affection Need for privacy and discretion Physical appearance Touch

 

2. Discuss the concept of self-actualisation.

Maslow’s hierarchy reflects a linear pattern of growth depicted in a direct pyramidal order of ascension. Moreover, he states that self-actualizing individuals are able to resolve dichotomies such as that reflected in the ultimate contrary of free-will and determinism. He also contends that self-actualizers are highly creative, psychologically robust individuals. It is argued herein that a dialectical transcendence of ascension toward self-actualization better describes this type of self-actualization, and even the mentally ill, whose psychopathology correlates with creativity, have the capacity to self-actualize. Maslow’s hierarchy is described as follows: 1. Physiological needs, such as needs for food, sleep and air. 2. Safety, or the needs for security and protection, especially those that emerge from social or political instability. 3. Belonging and love including, the needs of deficiency and selfish taking instead of giving, and unselfish love that is based upon growth rather than deficiency. 4. Needs for self-esteem, self-respect, and healthy, positive feelings derived from admiration. 5. And “being” needs concerning creative self-growth, engendered from fulfillment of potential and meaning in life.

 

3. Outline human development across the lifespan.

Which stage of life is the most important? Some might claim that infancy is the key stage, when a baby’s brain is wide open to new experiences that will influence all the rest of its later life. Others might argue that it’s adolescence or young adulthood, when physical health is at its peak. Many cultures around the world value late adulthood more than any other, arguing that it is at this stage that the human being has finally acquired the wisdom necessary to guide others. Who is right? The truth of the matter is that every stage of life is equally significant and necessary for the welfare of humanity. In my book The Human Odyssey: Navigating the Twelve Stages of Life, I’ve written that each stage of life has its own unique “gift” to contribute to the world. We need to value each one of these gifts if we are to truly support the deepest needs of human life. Here are what I call the twelve gifts of the human life cycle: 1. Prebirth: Potential – The child who has not yet been born could become anything – a Michaelangelo, a Shakespeare, a Martin Luther King – and thus holds for all of humanity the principle of what we all may yet become in our lives. 2. Birth: Hope – When a child is born, it instills in its parents and other caregivers a sense of optimism; a sense that this new life may bring something new and special into the world. Hence, the newborn represents the sense of hope that we all nourish inside of ourselves to make the world a better place. 3. Infancy (Ages 0-3): Vitality – The infant is a vibrant and seemingly unlimited source of energy. Babies thus represent the inner dynamo of humanity, ever fueling the fires of the human life cycle with new channels of psychic power. 4. Early Childhood (Ages 3-6): Playfulness – When young children play, they recreate the world anew. They take what is and combine it with the what is possible to fashion events that have never been seen before in the history of the world. As such, they embody the principle of innovation and transformation that underlies every single creative act that has occurred in the course of civilization. 5. Middle Childhood (Ages 6-8): Imagination – In middle childhoood, the sense of an inner subjective self develops for the first time, and this self is alive with images taken in from the outer world, and brought up from the depths of the unconscious. This imagination serves as a source of creative inspiration in later life for artists, writers, scientists, and anyone else who finds their days and nights enriched for having nurtured a deep inner life. 6. Late Childhood (Ages 9-11): Ingenuity – Older children have acquired a wide range of social and technical skills that enable them to come up with marvelous strategies and inventive solutions for dealing with the increasing pressures that society places on them. This principle of ingenuity lives on in that part of ourselves that ever seeks new ways to solve practical problems and cope with everyday responsibilities. 7. Adolescence (Ages 12-20): Passion – The biological event of puberty unleashes a powerful set of changes in the adolescent body that reflect themselves in a teenager’s sexual, emotional, cultural, and/or spiritual passion. Adolescence passion thus represents a significant touchstone for anyone who is seeking to reconnect with their deepest inner zeal for life. 8. Early Adulthood (Ages 20-35): Enterprise – It takes enterprise for young adults to accomplish their many responsibilities, including finding a home and mate, establishing a family or circle of friends, and/or getting a good job. This principle of enterprise thus serves us at any stage of life when we need to go out into the world and make our mark. 9. Midlife (Ages 35-50): Contemplation – After many years in young adulthood of following society’s scripts for creating a life, people in midlife often take a break from worldly responsibilities to reflect upon the deeper meaning of their lives, the better to forge ahead with new understanding. This element of contemplation represents an important resource that we can all draw upon to deepen and enrich our lives at any age. 10. Mature Adulthood (Ages 50-80): Benevolence – Those in mature adulthood have raised families, established themselves in their work life, and become contributors to the betterment of society through volunteerism, mentorships, and other forms of philanthropy. All of humanity benefits from their benevolence. Moreover, we all can learn from their example to give more of ourselves to others. 11. Late Adulthood (Age 80+): Wisdom – Those with long lives have acquired a rich repository of experiences that they can use to help guide others. Elders thus represent the source of wisdom that exists in each of us, helping us to avoid the mistakes of the past while reaping the benefits of life’s lessons. 12. Death & Dying: Life – Those in our lives who are dying, or who have died, teach us about the value of living. They remind us not to take our lives for granted, but to live each moment of life to its fullest, and to remember that our own small lives form of a part of a greater whole. 5

 

4. Define each of the following:

a. Spiritual Wellbeing

b. Cultural Wellbeing

c. Financial Wellbeing

d. Career/occupation Wellbeing

a. An important part of respecting cultural and spiritual preferences is to provide your clients with information on the cultural and spiritual networks available to them. Networks may include:  Advocates  Carers  Clergy / pastoral care providers  Family members  Friends  Veteran’s / war widow organisations To be able to provide information to your clients on the cultural and spiritual networks available to them, it is important that you are aware of the cultural and spiritual networks available in your local community (including both existing and new, as they occur). As noted above, networking – that is, engaging – with other professionals in the community services and in related fields is important in this respect, as these networks will be able to provide you with valuable information on events and services which might be suitable for your clients. Also, as discussed, you may research suitable opportunities online and in local newspapers / magazines, etc. b. Cultural issues may also be affecting your client’s ability to socialise and therefore may be impacting on their well-being. People in care often have limited ability to socialise due to illness or incapacitation but in some cases, there may be language barriers that can affect people. English may not be their first language and it is possible that they are isolated because of this. Of course, these two issues are not the only ones that can impact of mental and physical well-being. You should consider all aspects of the person if you notice a deterioration in   CHCCCS023 – Support independence and wellbeing Version 2 Course code and name mental and physical health in your clients and record and report them to your supervisor. c. It is a well-known fact that people who are struggling financially have a higher rate of illness than those who are not. You may often find that the well-being of your client’s is affected by the financial struggles they face. People who need home care do not work, perhaps live on disability income or aged pensions, where their disposable income is limited. People often isolate themselves because they do not have the finances to be socially active. This can increase depression and physical illness in your clients. If you recognise signs of mental illness, depression or other signs that might be negatively impacting your client, consider their financial state as at least one aspect that could be impacting their well-being.

 

5. What are the basic requirements for good health for every person?

Mental health o Nutrition and hydration o Exercise o Hygiene o Lifestyle o Oral health

 

6. What are the signs of mental health or developmental issues and the risk and protective factors?

Gross motor signs:  Has a markedly clumsy manner when compared with others of same age Vision signs:  Has difficulty following objects (or people) with eyes Hearing signs:  Fails to develop sounds or words that would be appropriate for their age Signs of mental health issues may include but are not limited to:  Changes in cognition: o Hallucinations or delusions o Excessive fears or suspiciousness (paranoia) o Confused thinking  Changes in mood: o Loss of interest in once pleasurable activities o Thinking or talking about suicide  Changes in behaviour: o Bizarre behaviour (strange posturing, ritualistic behaviour) o Intention harming or killing of animals (especially in children) o Hyperactivity o Physical changes: o Deterioration in hygiene or personal care o Unexplained weight gains or loss o Sleeping too much or being unable to sleep Consultation and questioning of the client should be conducted in an exploratory and clinically professional manner at all times, if you feel that a client is presenting with issues that are outside your scope of responsibility or expertise then appropriate referrals must be made in line with organisational, legal and ethical guidelines.

 

7. Service delivery models and standards

Integrated service delivery refers to a number of service agencies working together to collaborate and coordinate their support, services and interventions to clients. The focus is generally on clients, or client target groups, who have complex needs that require services from a number of agencies. Some efforts may be one-off, but more typically, there will be a system developed that enables agencies to meet or communicate and possibly streamline processes, to provide ongoing coordination.  The primary purpose of integrated service delivery approaches is to improve outcomes for our clients. How this is achieved, and the factors that are important, will vary according to the service settings, agency capabilities and specific needs of the clients. They may include:  Improving communication between agencies to monitor client progress and changes and be more responsive to these.  Identifying areas of duplication, working at cross-purposes, or what is creating confusion for clients about who is doing what.  Developing one plan for the client which includes the work being done by/with all agencies. This plan may also include actions and responsibilities the client agrees to do.  Building understanding and capacity between the agencies – such as sharing practice frameworks and legal and funding limitations – so they can work together more effectively and generally support each other in their service delivery.  Identifying systematic issues that create problems for clients, and for services in their efforts to meet client needs. This may include identification of client groups or needs that “fall between the gaps”. Ideally, there will be a process whereby these issues can be brought to the attention of decision-makers.  Development of streamlined processes which can provide more seamless services to clients, such as a common referral or assessment process.7 There are also governance and management rules that apply to community service organisations. For access to all the current standards please go to: http://www.dhs.vic.gov.au/about-the-department/documents-and-resources/policies,-guidelines-and-legislation/human-services-standards-evidence-guide-and-resource-tool http://www.communityservices.act.gov.au/home/about_us/client_service_standards. https://www.qld.gov.au/community/community-organisations-volunteering/community-care-standards/

 

8. What are the relevant funding models that are used in health and community services

DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES FLEXIBLE FUNDING MODEL (2011 – 2012) Flexible Funding models have been created to provide a new flexible way to fund many of the nation’s health priorities. The creation of the Funds will, over time, reduce red tape, increase flexibility and more efficiently provide evidence-based funding for the delivery of better health outcomes in the community. For further information on flexible funding models go to: http://www.dhs.vic.gov.au/funded-agency-channel/about-service-agreements/simplifying-funding-and-reporting/flexible-funding DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH BLOCK FUNDING MODEL A fundamental principle of the new block funding arrangements is that changes to the service mix will be determined at the local level and negotiated between organisations and the Department of Health. Changes should focus on the local community’s needs but also take into account broader health objectives, along with the capacity of the ACCHO. Each ‘ACCO Services’ activity or ‘bucket’ includes sub activities that describe the programs or ‘jam jars’. In a block funding model, ACCHOs will have the flexibility to move funds from one ‘bucket’ to another, as well as have one ‘jam jar’ to another, to address local priorities. The service standards and guidelines for each program area will still apply. For a full description of block funding arrangements go to: http://www.dhs.vic.gov.au/funded-agency-channel/about-service-agreements/simplifying-funding-and-reporting/flexible-funding ACTIVITY BASED FINDING The key principles of ABF are the accurate and transparent allocation of funding to health services based on the activity they perform. This requires an ability to define, classify, count, cost and fund activity in a consistent manner. Three key elements form the building blocks of ABF.  Classification – grouping activity that uses a similar amount of resources into clinical meaningful classes  Counting – applying the same rules and units to measure the amount of activity that occurs  Costing – measuring in dollars the amount of resources used to provide each output in the classified group For a full outline on activity based funding models go to: https://www2.health.vic.gov.au/hospitals-and-health-services/funding-performance-accountability/activity-based-funding work role boundaries” Community service workers are often required to make decisions according to the ethics and philosophies of their organisation. Behaving in a way that is ethical and adhering to the policies and procedures of the organisation are a good starting point for providing high standards of care for the client. It is the responsibility of management to develop policies and procedures which reflect the values, objectives, and purpose of the organisation. Whilst management also have the responsibility to introduce staff to the policies and procedures, particularly to the new worker at the time of induction, it is the responsibility of the worker to familiarise themselves with the relevant information and ensure they comply. Position descriptions are a good way for the worker to establish the scope of their work. These descriptions provide information about the scope of the work and the duties to be performed. Policies and procedures provide valuable information about how the work should be done. Community workers should pay particular attention to the boundaries of their work. Not only are they expected to perform to a particular standard outlined by the organisation, but they must ensure that they do not exceed the boundaries of their work role. Attempting to work beyond the level of one’s qualifications can be both dangerous to the health and safety of others, as well as to the detriment of the client. For example A person who holds a certificate 4 in community services should not be attempting to provide treatment for a client which would normally be the job of a registered nurse. All workers need to be aware of their responsibilities and the boundaries of their work role. If at any stage you are unclear about the scope of your work then you should consult with your supervisor or manager, as well as the policy and procedure manual of the organisation.

 

9. Issues that impact health and well being

 

10. Impacts of community values and attitudes, including myths and stereotypes

 

11. Indicators of emotional concerns and issues

It is important that you recognise indications that a client’s experience of pain is affecting their wellbeing. Indicators that a client’s experience of pain is affecting their wellbeing are provided following:  Be less able to function  Feel tired and lethargic  Lose [their] appetite or have nausea  Not be able to sleep, or have [their]sleep interrupted by pain  Experience less enjoyment and more anxiety  Become depressed, anxious, or unable to concentrate on anything except pain  Feel a loss of control  Have less interaction with friends; be less able to enjoy sex or affection  Have a change in appearance  Feel that [they] are more of a burden on family or other caregivers When you recognise indications that a client’s experience of pain is affecting their well-being, it is essential that you report this according to organisation policy and protocol. This may involve formal reports, both in written and verbal format, to your supervisor and other senior persons in your organisations, as well as your clients’ other caregivers (such as their doctor or chronic pain specialist, etc.). You should familiarise yourself with your organisations policies and protocols for reporting instances which negatively impact a clients’ wellbeing. A client’s emotional needs may include: A sense of security and contentment. Acceptance of loss  Dealing with degenerative issues  Dealing with pain, grief, bereavement, acceptance of death  Freedom from anger, anxiety, fear, guilt loneliness  Love and affection  Veterans’ / war widows’ issues A client’s psychological needs may include:  A sense of control  Acceptance of disability  Freedom from undue stress  Life stage acceptance  Personal identity  Self-determination  Self-esteem  Sense of belonging  Veterans’ / war widows’ issues

 

12. Discuss each of the below and how they are used in your industry:

a. Duty of care

b. Dignity of risk

c. Human rights

d. Discrimination

e. Mandatory reporting

f. Privacy, confidentiality and disclosure

g. Work role boundaries – responsibilities and limitations

You will need to ensure you monitor all aspects of your client service delivery to ensure your reputation is upheld, you are meeting the needs of the clients and you are meeting your duty of care requirements. Your organisation’s reputation is extremely important. Without a good reputation, your service will not operate. You will not receive referrals from others and the clients you have will eventually move on. Therefore, you must ensure that at all times you are addressing the needs of individual clients and the community as a whole. All of this comes under one very important banner. Your duty of care! This means your duty of care to staff, clients, the community as a whole, other organisations and much more. Duty of care is a difficult term to define as there isn’t a legal definition of the concept (except in occupational health and safety legislation). Duty of care comes under the legal concept of negligence, and negligence belongs to the domain of common law. Common law is also known as judge-made law as the decision about guilt is decided using legal precedence and community attitudes and expectations. That is, there hasn’t been an Act of Parliament passed defining what is legal or illegal but rather the decision is based on what is considered appropriate or not appropriate at a particular time in history.8 ROLE OF AGENCY POLICY AND PROCEDURE Organisations should always ensure that there are a clearly written policy and procedure, which enables staff to understand and perform their duty of care. Policy will vary according to the target group and agency context, but should include the following points:  Encourage consumers, staff and significant others (such as parents and carers) to work together to cooperatively develop strategies and identify solutions for challenging duty of care issues  Ensure that staff receive appropriate, relevant training and support to perform their duty of care The following points are an example of what may be incorporated into policy and procedure in relation to the duty of care. All employees need access to orientation training and induction that includes information about duty of care Discrimination In Australia, employers and their employees are legally obliged to uphold the human rights standards set out in a number of federal laws. Some of these human rights standards are included in the types of Acts listed below. Some of the types of laws governing human rights include:  Age Discrimination  Disability Discrimination  Human Rights and Equal Opportunity  Race Discrimination  Sex Discrimination It is important for you to familiarise yourself with the relevant human rights legislation. You will be able to access your own copy of relevant legislation at http://www.humanrights.gov.au/our-work/legal/legislation  Employees need to seek advice and support from internal or external professionals to deal with issues that challenge duty of care and dignity of risk  Appropriate documentation relating to daily duty of care responsibilities should be maintained at all times (e.g. case notes)  Information should be given to clients, staff, volunteers and significant others about considerations involved in evaluating duty of care issues. This should include information identifying duty of care obligations and the client’s right to experience and learn from risk taking  Ensure that clients participate in decisions regarding their care arrangements and lifestyle choices  Issues relating to duty of care must be discussed with a manager or supervisor As you can see, the thrust of duty of care policy is to collaborate with the relevant people involved and to be mindful of accountability and client rights.9 Human rights are rights inherent to all human beings, whatever our nationality, place of residence, sex, national or ethnic origin, colour, religion, language, or any other status. We are all equally entitled to our human rights without discrimination. These rights are all interrelated, interdependent and indivisible. Universal human rights are often expressed and guaranteed by law, in the forms of treaties, customary international law , general principles and other sources of international law. International human rights law lays down obligations of Governments to act in certain ways or to refrain from certain acts, in order to promote and protect human rights and fundamental freedoms of individuals or groups. 11 Dignity of risk is the legal requirement to ensure that all persons with a disability has the legal right to choose their own medical treatments even if the professionals involved feel that this is not the correct choice for them. Mandatory reporting is a term used to describe the legislative requirement imposed on selected classes of people to report suspected cases of child abuse and neglect to government authorities. Parliaments in all Australian states and territories have enacted mandatory reporting laws of some description. However, the laws are not the same across all jurisdictions. The main differences concern who has to report, and what types of abuse and neglect have to be reported. There are also other differences, such as the state of mind that activates the reporting duty (i.e., having a concern, suspicion or belief on reasonable grounds – see Table 1) and the destination of the report. QLD, Becomes aware, or reasonably suspects Significant detrimental effect on the child’s physical, psychological or emotional wellbeing F: The Australian Medical Association (AMA), Code of Ethics, requires medical practitioners to maintain a patient’s confidentiality and privacy. Your workplace will also have its own policies in place on how you go about doing this. While the terms ‘privacy’ and ‘confidentiality’ are commonly used interchangeably, they are not identical concepts. Privacy laws regulate the handling of personal information (including health information) through enforceable privacy principles. On the other hand, the legal duty of confidentiality obliges health care practitioners to protect their patients against the inappropriate disclosure of personal information. Confidentiality means keeping a client’s information between you and the client. You are not to make a client’s information available to anyone else unless they are involved in their care. This includes; family, friends, colleagues and anyone else you may be talking to. The types of information that is considered confidential can include:  Name, date of birth, age, sex and address  Current contact details of family, guardian, etc.  Bank details  Medical history or records  Personal care issues  File progress notes  Individual personal plans  Assessments or reports Adult clients have the right to decide what information they consider personal and confidential. There is, however, no such thing as absolute confidentiality in the community services industry. Workers are required to keep notes on all interactions with clients and often to keep statistics about who is seen and what issues are addressed. As a worker, there Developed by Enhance Your Future Pty Ltd 71 CHCCCS023 – Support independence and wellbeing Version 2 Course code and name will be times when you could be faced with some personal difficulties regarding confidentiality.10 It is desirable for confidentiality to be handled consistently throughout the service, and while the type and extent of the information conveyed by staff will vary according to the situation, certain basic principles are applicable in all instances.

 

 

QUESTIONS

The following questions may be answered verbally with your assessor or you may write down your answers. Please discuss this with your assessor before you commence. Short Answers are required which is approximately 4 typed lines = 50 words, or 5 lines of handwritten text.

Your assessor will take down dot points as a minimum if you choose to answer them verbally.

Answer the following questions either verbally with your assessor or in writing.

1. As a support worker, what can you do to recognise and support individual differences in clients?

 

2. List two examples each of a client’s possible cultural and spiritual preferences.

 

3. Support workers are expected to be able to respond to sexuality and sexual health issues. How can they do this?

SUPPORT THE PERSON TO EXPRESS THEIR SEXUALITY Supporting a client to express their sexuality is an important aspect of your role. But how can you do so in ways that are both legal and meaningful? Consider the following information from Victoria’s “Personal relationships, sexuality and sexual health policy and guidelines” for disability workers in the state about how you can support clients to express their sexuality: All people access a wide variety of support and materials to meet their individual needs. Sexuality is just one of many life areas where people may seek such support. The role of support workers is to provide assistance, where needed, so people with a disability can experience the same life opportunities as other people. As part of their role, support workers are expected to be able to respond to sexuality and sexual health issues by:  Answering simple questions.  Supporting people with a disability to understand their rights and responsibilities in this area.  Supporting people in accessing services where needed. This may include helping people access information and services or attend appointments.  Being aware of, and able to respond appropriately to, duty of care issues.  Ensuring sexuality and sexual health are considered in individual planning for people with an intellectual or cognitive disability It is essential that you find a suitable balance between supporting a person to express their sexuality and remaining within the boundaries of your legal obligations to your client. Ensure you seek support from your supervisor or manager where required.

 

4. As a support worker, what can you do to promote independence in your clients?

 

5. List four of the types of networks that may be available to your clients.

 

6. What steps can you take to ensure that the physical wellbeing of your client is supported?

 

7. List six measures and modifications that can be implemented to minimise the risk of harm in a living environment

 

8. What incidents and/or information are you required to report and who should you report to?

 

9. In what ways can you support social, emotional and psychological wellbeing in your clients?

 

10. List six signs of abuse or neglect you may notice in your client.

Signs of neglect : Poor personal hygiene, including lack of skin ‘bloom’, hair loss, etc.  Dirty clothing.  Constantly hungry; failure to thrive; possibly obese.  Lack of medical / dental care.  Untreated sores / nappy rash.  Frequent illness / low-grade infections.  Delays in all developmental domains; erratic attendance at respite care.  Lack of adequate supervision; extended stays at services.  Inadequate sleep cycles; fatigue.  Anxiety about abandonment.  Self-comforting behaviours.  Attention-seeking, often extreme.

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