The Systems Development Life Cycle and the Nurse Informaticist|2025

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Discussion: The Systems Development Life Cycle and the Nurse Informaticist

 

 

 

The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is a model for planning and implementing change within an organization. It is important for many individuals to be represented in the process, especially the end users of the system or the employees who must live with the change. As informatics become more and more widespread throughout the health care field, collaboration between information technology (IT) professionals and health care practitioners is becoming increasingly important. The nurse informaticist is able to combine the perspective of the information technology side with the clinical nursing perspective.

 

While the titles and specific responsibilities of nurse informaticists vary across organizations and practice settings, the fundamental purpose of the role remains the same. Nurse informaticists synthesize their knowledge of how technology can improve health care with an understanding of clinical practice and workflow. This is why nurse informaticists can be instrumental in facilitating the SDLC for informatics in health care. For this Discussion, you examine the relationship between the nurse informaticist and the use of the SDLC.

 

 

 

To prepare:

 

  • Review the information in this week’s Learning Resources on the SDLC and the role of the nurse informaticist. Reflect on Chapter 1 of the Dennis, Wixom, and Roth course text and consider how the information about the systems analyst role translates into nursing and health care.
  • Consider a recent change in your organization related to the implementation of a new technology or system. How was this change handled? What was the general SDLC process? Who was involved, and what were the outcomes?
  • Identify whether your organization (or one with which you are familiar) has a formal title or position for the nurse informaticist. This position may be called by a different name, such as nurse informatics specialist or informatics analyst, so be sure to review the position description.
  • If your organization has a position for the nurse informaticist, what are the responsibilities of that position? If your organization does not have such a position, conduct research in the Walden Library and at credible online sources on the role of the nurse informaticist.
  • Reflect on the role of the nurse informaticist in the overall health care field. How is this position connected to the SDLC? Assess the benefits of having this specialized position within health care organizations and involving the nurse informaticist in the SDLC.

     

     

    Post by tomorrow 8/30/16 550 words in APA format with a minimum of 3 references from the list provided under Required Readings. Apply the level 1 headings as numbered below:

    1) A description of how the systems development life cycle is utilized in your organization (Hospital), or in one with which you are familiar, and assess its effectiveness.

     

    2)  Assess the role of the nurse informaticist in your organization. If the nurse informaticist is not a current position within your organization, provide a description of the generally accepted role of the nurse informaticist based on this week’s Learning Resources and your own research.

     

    3)  Explain why it is important for the nurse informaticist to be involved in the SDLC process and the overall organizational benefits of having such involvement.

     

     

     

     

    Required Readings

     

    Dennis, A., Wixom, B. H., & Roth, R. M. (2015). Systems analysis and design (6th ed.). Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

 

  • Chapter 1, “The Systems Analyst and Information Systems Development” (pp. 1–34)

 

In this chapter, the authors clarify the relationship between systems analysts and information systems development. The chapter also covers the basic business applications of information systems.

 

 

 

McGonigle, D., & Mastrian, K. G. (2015). Nursing informatics and the foundation of knowledge (3rd ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones and Bartlett Learning.

 

  • Chapter 10, “Systems Development Life Cycle: Nursing Informatics and Organizational Decision Making”

 

 

 

  • Chapter 11, “Administrative Information Systems”

 

Quality, organizational decision making is a requisite to successful advancements in technology. This chapter explores how workplaces respond to the necessity for improved information systems.

 

 

 

 

 

Anderson, C., & Sensmeier, J. (2011). Nursing informatics scope of practice expands, salaries increase. Computers, Informatics, Nursing, 29(5), 319–320.

 

Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.

 

This article assesses the growing need for informaticists in the health care industry. The combination of clinical and information technology experience that informaticists possess makes them invaluable in assisting in the health care industry’s transition into a heavier use of information systems.

 

 

 

Houston, S. M. (2012). Nursing’s role in IT projects. Nursing Management, 43(1), 18–19.

 

Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.

 

The societal advancements of information technology (IT) are major factors in the governance of health care organizations. This article gives an overview of how nurse informaticists blend their clinical know-how with IT to improve workflow and patient care.

 

 

 

McLane, S., & Turley, J. P. (2011). Informaticians: How they may benefit your healthcare organization. The Journal of Nursing Administration, 41(1), 29–35.

 

Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.

 

Nursing informaticists help guide the implementation of information systems into health care organizations. The authors of this article evaluate how informaticists effect change in management and improve meaningful use in nursing practice.

 

Prestigiacomo, J. (2012). The rise of the senior nurse informaticist. Healthcare Informatics, 29(2), 38–43.

 

Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.

 

The author of this article highlights the conditions of the health care industry and its growing reliance on data-driven decision making. Nurse informaticists are important in this transition, playing a major role in the development and utilization of electronic health records (EHRs).

 

Warm, D., & Thomas, B. (2011). A review of the effectiveness of the clinical informaticist role. Nursing Standard, 25(44), 35–38.

 

Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.

 

Health care organizations rely heavily on information management and technology for organizational maintenance and patient care. This article examines the clinical informaticist’s role in facilitating the implementation of health information technology and spearheading clinical risk management.

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Community health assessment / Windshield Survey|2025

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Community Assessment

A community health assessment (sometimes called a CHA), also known as community health needs assessment (sometimes called a CHNA), refers to a state, tribal, local, or territorial health assessment that identifies key health needs and issues through systematic, comprehensive data collection and analysis. Community health assessments use such principles as

  • Multisector collaborations that support shared ownership of all phases of community health improvement, including assessment, planning, investment, implementation, and evaluation
  • Proactive, broad, and diverse community engagement to improve results
  • A definition of community that encompasses both a significant enough area to allow for population-wide interventions and measurable results, and includes a targeted focus to address disparities among subpopulations
  • Maximum transparency to improve community engagement and accountability
  • Use of evidence-based interventions and encouragement of innovative practices with a thorough evaluation
  • Evaluation to inform a continuous improvement process
  • Use of the highest quality data pooled from and shared among, diverse public and private sources

(Retrieved from https://www.cdc.gov/publichealthgateway/cha/plan.html)

Windshield Survey:

“A  windshield survey is an informal method used by community health nurses to obtain basic knowledge about a given community. It provides a subjective view of the various physical characteristics of a communal area as observed while driving or walking through a neighborhood.

.”(Retrieved from;

mynursingprofessionalportfolio.weebly.com/uploads/8/9/3/3/8933086/windshieldsurvey.docx).”

As stated in the syllabus please present your assignment in an APA format word document, Arial 12 font attached to the forum in the discussion board title  “Week 1 discussion questions”.  A minimum of 2 evidence-based references is required (not counting the class textbook) no older than 5 years. A minimum of 1000 words are required.  Make sure the assessment is based in the community where you live.  I don’t want community health assessment from other communities, once again it must be from the community you live.  Please mention the zip code of your community on the first page of the assignment.

Please follow the instructions given in the syllabus  Discussion Question (DQ) Participation Guidelines” and “Discussion Question (DQ) Submission Guidelines.  

Respectfully;

Prof. Cruz

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Legal and Ethical Considerations for Group and Family Therapy|2025

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POST 1

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) is one of the acts that guide the practices of a nurse when it comes to Group and Family Therapy. Ethical and legal considerations such as confidential information of a patient as defined by HIPPA is part of what psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner does. Therefore, in this discussion, the primary objective is to provide an explanation of how legal and ethical considerations for group and family therapy differ from individual therapy.  The differences between the considerations significantly affect therapeutic approaches for clients depending on whether the clients are put on group or family therapy (Schiefele et al. 2018)

The differences in legal and ethical considerations for group and family therapy and individual therapy

Group and family therapists face more ethical and legal challenges than individually oriented therapists do. First, in group and family therapy, the ethical consideration is grounded in the foundational premise of the family as a system and therefore, the focus of the therapy is on the relationship. Some of the specific ethical and legal considerations that require special attention on the part of individual and group and family therapists include responsibility, informed consent and confidentiality. The first difference in ethical considerations for group and family therapy and individual therapy based on responsibility (Schiefele et al. 2018). Unlike individual therapy, group and family therapy is associated with the dilemma of multiple clients who are in the same situations and therefore, an intervention that serves one person’s best interests may be counter therapeutic to another. It means that the therapy process must consider an intervention that serves all the parties involved (Gurman & Burton, 2014). In group and family therapy, there are conflicting goals, as well as, the interests of the parties involved. It is unlike individual therapy in which the therapist encourages the client to explore potential ramifications of his or her actions. The group and family therapist is set apart from the individual therapist because of the family therapist’s ethical clear commitment to promoting the welfare of every member involved in the treatment process. It implies that group and family therapist has more responsibility than an individual therapist does for exercising judgment, which must take into account all the individuals (Gurman & Burton, 2014)

When it comes to legal consideration, informed consent is a key difference between group and family therapy and individual therapy. In treating each member’s confidences in-group and family therapy, the therapists should act as though that person were an individual client (Shaw, 2015).  The information got during a private session, or a telephone call from one member is not divulged to other family members. The therapist upholds the individual client’s confidentiality to other family members (Hertlein, Blumer & Mihaloliakos, 2015). When it comes to individual therapy, one obtains only one client’s permission to use information while in the group and family therapy the permission is obtained during the conjoint sessions.

How the differences might affect therapeutic approaches for client’s in-group and family therapy

By considering responsibility as ethical considering in group and family therapy, the therapist must ensure that improvement in the status of one the member in the therapy is not occurring at the expense of another member. As part of ethical consideration, the group and family therapist should be an advocate of the family system during therapeutic process and avoids becoming an agent of any one of the members. When it comes to preservation of confidentiality, therapeutic approaches for clients in group and family therapy is such that the therapists arrange for sessions with individual family members to actively encourage the sharing of “secrets” as part of better understand what is occurring in the group or family (Shaw, 2015). When dealing with clients in group and family therapy, I will ensure that informed consent is obtained from each member in the therapy process before any information is used. If permission is not granted, all information must be kept confidential (Hertlein,  Blumer & Mihaloliakos, 2015)

References

Gurman, A. S., & Burton, M. (2014). Individual Therapy for Couple of Problems: Perspectives and Pitfalls. Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, 40, 4, 470-483.

Hertlein, K. M., Blumer, M. L. C., & Mihaloliakos, J. H. (2015). Marriage and Family Counselors’ Perceived Ethical Issues Related to Online Therapy. The Family Journal, 23, 1, 5-12.

Schiefele, A.-K., Lutz, W., Rubel, J., Barkham, M., Saxon, D., Bohnke, J., Delgadillo, J., … Lambert, M. J. ( 2018). Reliability of Therapist Effects in Practice-Based Psychotherapy Research: A Guide for the Planning of Future Studies. Administration and Policy in Mental Health and Mental Health Services Research, 45, 6, 598-613.

Shaw, E. (2015). Ethical Practice in Couple and Family Therapy: Negotiating Rocky Terrain. Australian and New

POST 2

Psychotherapy is a way to help people with a broad variety of mental illnesses and emotional difficulties. Psychotherapy can help eliminate or control troubling symptoms, so a person can function better and can increase well-being and healing (APA, 2018). There are two major types of therapies which are Individual therapy and group therapy. On individual therapy, the individual expresses his or her freedom and ability to talk to the therapist without fear of anything. Individual therapy involves the patient and the therapist alone while the group or family therapy includes the patient and the family members or another patient in a group therapy. The group and family therapy help to improve the relationship and interaction of the patient with other people in the group or family which leads to an improvement in the patient mental health (Laureate Education (Producer), 2017).

Legal and Ethical Considerations for Group/Family and Individual Therapy

Ethical consideration that is most seen individual therapy versus group and family therapy is the process and content of interactions in individual versus group therapy. In individual therapy, is mostly talk about one particular patient on his or her feeling and the patient privacy is maintained. Group or family therapy involves two or more people where privacy is not maintained and where one individual’s perception may be criticized by another member of the group which makes the patient endorse a feeling that his or her feelings do not count and respected (Nichols, M., 2014). The level of confidentiality in groups is far less secure than it is individual therapy. Although group members are generally instructed that the information and events that occur in the group are to be held confidential and only to be shared with group members during therapy, the potential for a breach of confidentiality is far greater in group therapy (AAC, 2018).

Both the individual and group or family required the therapist to obtain informed consent before the commencement of the therapy. The therapist is expected to explain the dos and don’ts of the sessions, the goals, and the expected outcome of the therapy to his or her clients. In addition to that, the therapist will make sure that the client’s signs form for confidentiality. This will ensure that anything said between any two or more group members at any time is part of the group and is confidential (Breeskin J., 2011).

Impact of the Ethical factors and Strategies for the therapeutic approaches for Clients in Group/Family Therapy

The patient will be educated on the importance of confidentiality and not reveal other patient’s mental health problem to other people. The therapist should use appropriate therapeutic skills when interacting with group therapy.  Ethical issues in group psychotherapy are complex and differ from individual psychotherapy with regard to the types of ethical dilemmas that are encountered. Confidentiality is a special area of concern, given that there are more threats to confidentiality in group therapy than in individual therapy (Klontz B.T., 2004).

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NURS 6531 FINAL EXAM|2025

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NURS 6531 FINAL EXAM (2 VERSIONS) & NURS 6531 MIDTERM EXAM (2 VERSIONS) (100 CORRECT Q & A IN EACH VERSION, TOTAL: 400 Q & A)

 

NURS 6531 Final Exam / NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University

Walden NURS 6531 Final Exam / Walden NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest)

· Question 1

 

When   completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct   including the expectations for academic integrity?

· Question 2

 

Central obesity, “moon” face, and dorsocervical fat pad   are associated with:

 

A.

Metabolic     syndrome

 

B.

Unilateral     pheochromocytoma

 

C.

Cushing’s     syndrome

 

D.

None     of the above

 

· Question 3

 

An elderly man is started on lisinopril and   hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Three days later, he returns to the   office complaining of left great toe pain. On exam, the nurse practitioner   notes an edematous, erythematous tender left great toe. The likely   precipitant of this patient’s pain is:

 

A.

Trauma

 

B.

Tight     shoes

 

C.

Arthritis     flare

 

D.

Hydrochlorothiazide

 

· Question 4

 

The most effective treatment of non-infectious bursitis   includes:

 

· Question 5

 

What conditions must be met for you to bill “incident to”   the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from Medicare?

 

Answers:

You must initiate the plan     of care for the patient

 

The physician must be     on-site and engaged in patient care

 

You must be employed as an     independent contractor

 

You must be the main health     care provider who sees the patient

 

· Question 6

 

Which of the following is not a risk factor associated   with the development of syndrome X and type 2 diabetes mellitus?

 

· Question 7

 

Which of the following is not a common early sign of   benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A.   Nocturia
B. Urgency incontinence
C. Strong urinary stream flow
D. Straining to void

 

· Question 8

 

Steve, age 69, has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).   When teaching him how to reduce his lower esophageal sphincter pressure,   which substances do you recommend that he avoid?

§ Food that is very hot or very cold

§ Fatty or fried foods

§ Peppermint or spearmint, including flavoring

§ Coffee, tea, and soft drinks that contain caffeine

§ Spicy, highly seasoned foods

§ Fried foodDT caffeine, chocolate and anticholinergics

 

· Question 9

 

Which drug category contains the drugs that are the first   line Gold standard therapy for COPD?

 

· Question 10

 

The most commonly recommended pharmacological treatment   regimen for low back pain (LBP) is:

 

· Question 11

 

Which of the following is not appropriate suppression   therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis?

 

· Question 12

 

A patient presents with dehydration, hypotension, and   fever. Laboratory testing reveals hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and   hypoglycemia. These imbalances are corrected, but the patient returns 6 weeks   later with the same symptoms of hyperpigmentation, weakness, anorexia,   fatigue, and weight loss. What action(s) should the nurse practitioner take?

.A Obtain a   thorough history and physical, and check serum cortisol and ACTH levels.
B. Perform a diet history and check CBC and FBS.
C. Provide nutritional guidance and have the patient return in one month.
D. Consult home health for intravenous administration

 

· Question 13

The nurse practitioner diagnoses epididymitis in a 24 year old sexually active male patient. The drug of choice for treatment of this patient is:

· Question 14

How do you respond when Jessica, age 42, asks you what constitutes a good minimum cardiovascular workout?

· Question 15

 

The intervention known to be most effective in the   treatment of severe depression, with or without psychosis, is:

· Question 16

 

You are assessing a patient after a sports injury to his   right knee. You elicit a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This test   indicates an injury to the: he
A. lateral meniscus
B. cruciate ligament
C. medial meniscus
D. collateral ligament.

 

· Question 17

 

 

A 32 year old female patient presents with fever, chills,   right flank pain, right costovertebral angle tenderness, and hematuria. Her   urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and red blood cells. The nurse   practitioner diagnoses pyelonephritis. The most appropriate management is:

 

· Question 18

 

A 21-year-old female presents to the office   complaining of urinary frequency and urinary burning. The nurse practitioner   suspects a urinary tract infection when the urinalysis reveals

· Question 19

 

A middle-aged man presents to urgent care complaining of   pain of the medial condyle of the lower humerus. The man works as a carpenter   and describes a gradual onset of pain. On exam, the medial epicondyle is   tender and pain is increased with flexion and pronation. Range of motion is   full The most likely cause of this patient’s pain is:

 

· Question 20

 

The initial clinical sign of Dupuytren’s contracture is:

·

· Question 21

 

The best test to determine microalbuminuria to assist in   the diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy

 

· Question 22

 

What is the first symptom seen in the majority of patients   with Parkinson’s disease?

 

· Question 23

 

The most commonly recommended method for prostate cancer   screening in a 55 year old male is:

 

· Question 24

 

Martin, age 24, presents with an erythematous ear canal,   pain, and a recent history of swimming. What do you suspect?

 

· Question 25

 

Which of   the following symptoms suggests a more serious cause of back pain?

 

· Question 26

 

Josh, age 22, is a stock boy and has an acute episode of   low back pain. You order and NSAID and tell him which of the following?

· Question 27

 

A 72 year old female patient reports a 6 month   history of gradually progressive swollen and painful distal interphalangeal   (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte   sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor   (RF) are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

· Question 28

 

A patient taking levothyroxine is being   over-replaced. What condition is he at risk for?

 

· Question 29

 

Which of the following is the most common cause of low   back pain?

 

A.

Lumbar     disc disease

 

B.

Spinal     stenosis

 

C.

Traumatic     fracture

 

D.

Osteoporosis

 

· Question 30

 

Which is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease   in the United States?

 

· Question 31

 

A 77-year-old female presents to the office complaining a   sudden swelling on her right elbow. She denies fever, chills, trauma, or   pain. The physical exam reveals a non-tender area of swelling over the   extensor surface over the right elbow with evidence of trauma or irritation.   The nurse practitioner suspects:

 

A.

Arthritis

 

B.

Ulnar     neuritis

 

C.

Septic     arthritis

 

D.

Olecranon     bursitis

 

· Question 32

 

A 60 year old female patient complains of sudden onset   unilateral, stabbing, surface pain in the lower part of her face lasting a   few minutes, subsiding, and then returning. The pain is triggered by touch or   temperature extremes. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following   is the most likely diagnosis?

 

· Question 33

 

Beth, age 49, comes in with low back pain. An x-ray of the   lumbosacral spine is within normal limits. Which of the following diagnoses   do you explore further?

 

· Question 34

 

A patient exhibits extrapyramidal side effects of   antipsychotic medications. Which of the following symptoms would lead you to   look for another diagnosis?

 

· Question 35

 

Phalen’s test, 90°wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces   symptoms of:

 

· Question 36

 

Jennifer says that she has heard that caffeine can cause   osteoporosis and asks you why. How do you respond?

· Question 37

 

The most common cause of elevated liver function tests is:

 

· Question 38

 

Reed-Sternberg B lymphocytes are associated with which of   the following disorders:

 

A.

Aplastic anemia

 

B.

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

 

C.

Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

 

D.

Myelodysplastic syndromes

 

· Question 39

 

Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of   thrombophilia?

 

A.

Homocysteinuria

 

B.

Protein C deficiency

 

C.

Factor V Leiden

 

D.

Antiphospholipid antibodies

 

· Question 41

 

A 75-year-old female is diagnosed with primary   hyperparathyroidism and asks the nurse practitioner what the treatment for   this disorder is. The nurse practitioner explains:

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with Vitamin D restriction

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with parathyroidectomy

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with daily magnesium

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with parenteral parathyroid hormone (PTH)

 

· Question 42

 

Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is based on:

·

· Question 43

 

A 25 year old overweight patient presents with a   complaint of dull achiness in his groin and history of a palpable lump in his   scrotum that “comes and goes”. On physical examination, the nurse   practitioner does not detect a scrotal mass. There is no tenderness, edema,   or erythema of the scrotum, the scrotum does not transilluminate. What is the   most likely diagnosis?

A. Testicular   torsion
B. Epididymitis
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Varicocele

 

· Question 44

 

Dave, age 38, states that he thinks he has an ear   infection because he just flew back from a business trip and feels unusual   pressure in his ear. You diagnose barotrauma. What is your next action?

A. Prescribe nasal steroids and oral decongestants
B. Prescribe antibiotic eardrops
C. Prescribe systemic eardrops
D. Refer David to an ear, nose, and throat specialist

 

· Question 45

 

Which of the following antibiotics should not be   prescribed for a pregnant woman in the 3rd trimester?

· Question 46

 

The physiological explanation of syncope is:

 

· Question 47

 

 

A 20 year old male patient complains of “scrotal   swelling.” He states his scrotum feels heavy, but denies pain. On   examination, the nurse practitioner notes transillumination of the scrotum.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

 

· Question 48

 

A 32 year old male patient complains of urinary   frequency and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals   bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The   initial treatment should be: nclude nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals,   trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), or fosfomycin.

 

· Question 49

 

Diagnostic radiological studies are indicated for low back   pain:

 

· Question 50

 

Who is at a higher risk for developing nephrolithiasis?

·

· Question 51

 

An 81-year-old female is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.   When considering drug therapy for this patient, the nurse practitioner is   most concerned with which of the following side effects?

 

A.

Weight     gain

 

B.

Fracture     risk

 

C.

Hypoglycemia

 

D.

Weight     loss

 

· Question 52

 

A 28-year-old female presents to the office requesting   testing for diagnosis of hereditary thrombophilia. Her father recently had a   deep vein thrombosis and she is concerned about her risk factors. The nurse   practitioner explains that:

· Question 53

 

The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in   males is usually made by:

 

· Question 54

 

Which history is commonly found in a patient with   glomerulonephritis?

 

· Question 55

 

A   patient complains of generalized joint pain and stiffness associated with   activity and relieved with rest. This patient history is consistent with   which of the following disorders?

 

· Question 56

 

The most common presentation of thyroid cancer is:

 

· Question 57

 

The obligatory criteria for diagnosis of muscular   dystrophy (MD) are:

 

· Question 58

 

The diagnosis which must be considered in a patient who   presents with a severe headache of sudden onset, with neck stiffness and   fever, is:

 

· Question 59

 

A 60 year old male patient with multiple health   problems presents with a complaint of erectile dysfunction (ED). Of the   following, which medication is most likely to be causing the problem?

 

· Question 60

 

A 72 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating   restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is   accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most   likely cause of this behavior?

A. Dementia
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Depression

 

· Question 61

 

Which of the following set of symptoms should raise   suspicion of a brain tumor?

 

· Question 62

 

The cornerstone of treatment for   stress fracture of the femur or metatarsal stress fracture is:

 

· Question 63

 

Sally, a computer programmer, has just been given a new diagnosis   of carpal tunnel syndrome. Your next step is to:

 

· Question 64

 

Marsha presents with symptoms resembling both fibromyalgia   and chronic fatigue syndrome, which have many similarities. Which of the   following is more characteristic of fibromyalgia?

A.   Musculosckeletal pain
B. Difficulty sleeping
C. Depression
D. Fatigue

 

· Question 65

 

The cardinal sign of infectious arthritis is:

 

 

· Question 66

 

Diagnostic evaluation for urinary calculi includes:

 

· Question 67

 

Martin, a 58 year old male with diabetes, is at your   office for his diabetes follow up. On examining his feet with monofilament,   you discover that he has developed decreased sensation in both feet. There are   no open areas or signs of infection on his feet. What health teaching should   Martin receive today regarding the care if his feet?

See a   podiatrist yearly; wash your feet daily with
warm, soapy water and towel dry between the
toes; inspect your feet daily for any lesions; and
apply lotion to any dry areas.

· Question 68

 

Potential causes of septic   arthritis include which of the following?

· Question 69

 

Which of the following is the best response to a woman who   has just admitted she is a victim of spousal abuse?

· Question 70

 

A 15 year-old female patient is 5 feet tall and weighs 85   pounds. You suspect anorexia and know that the best initial approach is to:

Having   the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal

 

· Question 71

 

A 63-year-old man presents to the office with hematuria,   hesitancy, and dribbling. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a moderately   enlarged prostate that is smooth. The PSA is 1.2. What is the most   appropriate management strategy for you to follow at this time?

A. Prescribe   an alpha adrenergic blocker.
B. Recommend saw palmetto.
C. Prescribe an antibiotic
D. Refer the client to urology.

 

· Question 72

 

A patient has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder   (GAD). Which of the following medications may be used to treat generalized   anxiety disorder?

· Question 73

 

A positive drawer sign supports a diagnosis of:

 

· Question 74

 

Sam, age 67, is a diabetic with worsening renal function.   He has frequent hypoglycemic episodes, which he believes means that his   diabetes is getting “better.” How do you respond?

·

· Question 75

 

A 14 year old female cheerleader reports gradual and   progressive dull anterior knee pain, exacerbated by kneeling. The nurse   practitioner notes swelling and point tenderness at the tibial tuberosity.   X-ray is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

 

· Question 76

 

A 35 year old male presents with a complaint of low   pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced force of stream. The   nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. Which of the   following specimens would be least helpful for diagnosis?

· Question 77

 

Jack, age 55, comes to the office with a blood pressure of   144/98 mm Hg. He states that he did not know if it was ever elevated before.   When you retake his blood pressure at the end of the exam, it remains at   144/98. What should your next action be?

 

· Question 78

 

A patient has just been diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. He is   understandably upset and has questions about the prognosis. You response   should be:

·

· Question 79

 

Martin is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has   a condition that has reduced arterial blood flow to his penis. The most   common cause of this condition is:

 

· Question 80

 

Successful management of a patient with attention deficit hyperactivity   disorder (ADHD) may be achieved with:

 

· Question 81

 

What diabetic complications result from hyperglycemia?

1.

1.

1.  Retinopathy

2.  Hypertension   resistant to treatment

3. Peripheral   neuropathy

4.  Accelerated   atherogenesis

 

· Question 82

 

· Question 83

 

The most common symptoms of transient ischemic attack   (TIA) include:

 

· Question 84

 

What is the first step in the treatment of uric acid   kidney stones?

· Question 85

 

Establishment of a definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis   requires:

 

· Question 86

 

Which of the following is the most common causative   organism of nongonococcal urethritis?

 

A.

Chlamydia     trachomatis

 

B.

Ureaplasma     urealyticum

 

C.

Mycoplasma     hominis

 

D.

Trichonomas     vaginalis

 

· Question 87

 

Urine cultures should be obtained for which of the   following patients?

·

· Question 88

 

A 30 year old female patient presents to the clinic with   heat intolerance, tremors, nervousness, and weight loss inconsistent with   increased appetite. Which test would be most likely to confirm the suspected   diagnosis?

 

· Question 89

 

A patient has been diagnosed with   hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. How   long should the nurse practitioner wait before checking the patient’s TSH?

· Question 90

 

Potential causes of hypocalcemia include which of the   following?

 

· Question 91

 

Which of the following patients most warrants screening   for hypothyroidism?

· Question 92

 

Which of the following is a contraindication for metformin   therapy?

 

· Question 93

 

The organism most often associated with prostatitis is:

 

A.

Klebsiella

 

B.

Neiserria     gonorrhoaes

 

C.

Chlamydia     trachomatis

 

D.

Escherichia     coli

 

· Question 94

 

The most effective intervention(s)   to prevent stroke is (are):

 

· Question 95

 

What is the most commonly abused substance?

 

· Question 96

 

The hallmark of neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen’s   disease) present in almost 100% of patients is:

· Question 97

 

Diagnostic evaluation of   hypothyroidism reveals:

· Question 98

 

An obese hyperlipidemic patient, newly diagnosed with type   2 diabetes mellitus, has fasting glucose values 180 to 250 mg/Dl. What is the   most appropriate initial treatment to consider?

A. A   low-calorie diet and exercise
B. Sliding-scale NPH insulin every 12 hours
C. A sulfonylurea and/or metformin (Glucophage® -XR)
D. Sliding-scale regular insulin every 6 hours

 

· Question 99

 

The correct treatment for ankle sprain during the first 48   hours after injury includes:

· Question 100

 

Prolonged PT suggests:

 

A.

Platelet abnormality

 

B.

Abnormality in intrinsic     coagulation pathway

 

C.

Abnormality in extrinsic     coagulation pathway

 

D.

None of the above

 

Question 101

·

A patient presenting for an annual physical exam has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 This patient would be classified as:

· Question 102

 

The most reliable indicator(s) of neurological deficit   when assessing a patient with acute low back pain is(are):

· Question 103

 

Risk factors for Addison’s disease   include which of the following?

 

· Question 104

 

Major depression occurs most often   in which of the following conditions?

 

· Question 105

 

Which of the following medications increase the risk for   metabolic syndrome?

 

· Question 106

 

A 27 year old female patient with epilepsy is well   controlled with phenytoin (Dilantin). She requests information about   contraception. The nurse practitioner should instruct her that while taking   phenytoin:

 

· Question 107

 

Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the   following except:

 

· Question 108

 

Maria, age 17, was raped when she was 13 year old. She is   now experiencing sleeping problems, flashbacks, and depression. What is your   initial diagnosis?Post-traumatic stress disorder

 

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam / NURS6531 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University

Walden NURS 6531 Midterm Exam / Walden NURS6531 Midterm Exam (Latest)

· Question 1

 

When   completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct   including the expectations for academic integrity?

 

Yes

 

No

· Question 2

 

The most common cancer found on   the auricle is:

 

Actinic keratosis

 

Basal cell carcinoma

 

Squamous cell carcinoma

 

Acral-lentiginous melanoma

· Question 3

 

Which of the following   medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic   bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in   the patient?

 

Xanthines

 

Antihistimines

 

Steroids

 

Anticholinergics

· Question 4

 

A 47 year old male patient   presents to the clinic with a single episode of a moderate amount of bright   red rectal bleeding. On examination, external hemorrhoids are noted. How   should the nurse practitioner proceed?

 

Instruct the patient on     measures to prevent hemorrhoids such as bowel habits and diet.

 

Order a topical hemorrhoid cream along with a stool softener.

 

Refer the patient for a barium enema and sigmoidoscopy.
 

Refer the patient for a surgical hemorrhoidectomy.

· Question 5

 

Which of the following patient   characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis?

 

Overweight, cyanosis, and normal or slightly increased respiratory     rate
 

Underweight, pink skin, and increased respiratory rate
 

Overweight, pink skin, and normal or slightly increased respiratory     rate
 

Normal weight, cyanosis, and greatly increased respiratory rate

· Question 6

 

A 65-year-old female with   a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia   rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain.   Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril   20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12   milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and   possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at   this time is:

 

CBCdiff
 

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
 

Abdominal ultrasound
 

CT scan

· Question 7

 

A patient reports “something   flew in my eye” about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were   a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all   except:

 

Purulent drainage
 

Tearing
 

Photophobia
 

A positive fluorescein stain

· Question 8

 

A 21 year old college student   presents to the student health center with copious, markedly purulent   discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner student should suspect:

 

Viral conjunctivitis
 

Common pink eye
 

Gonococcal conjunctivitis
 

Allergic conjunctivitis

· Question 9

 

A 35 year old man   presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles   consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He   complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should   suspect:

 

A common case of shingles and prescribe an analgesic and an antiviral     agent
 

A complicated case of shingles and prescribe acyclovir, an analgesic,     and a topical cortisone cream
 

Herpes zoster and consider that this patient may be immunocompromised
 

A recurrence of chickenpox and treat the patient’s symptoms

· Question 10

 

Which type of lung cancer has   the poorest prognosis?

 

Adenocarcinoma
 

Epidermoid carcinoma
 

Small cell carcinoma
 

Large cell carcinoma

· Question 11

 

An 83-year-old female   presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains   she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4   times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic   use. The history suggests that the patient has:

 

Acute diarrhea
 

Chronic diarrhea
 

Irritable bowel
 

Functional bowel disease

· Question 12

 

Margaret, age 32, comes into   the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly   distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine   scale. What do you suspect?

 

An allergic reaction
 

Relapsing polychondritis
 

Lymphocytoma cutis
 

Systemic lupus erythematosus

· Question 13

 

Antibiotic administration has   been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the   following disease processes?

 

Chronic sinusitis

 

Acute bronchitis
 

Bacterial pneumonia
 

Acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

· Question 14

 

Lisa, age 49, has daily   symptoms of asthma. She uses her inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist daily.   Her exacerbations affect her activities and they occur at least twice weekly   and may last for days. She is affected more than once weekly during the night   with an exacerbation. Which category of asthma severity is Lisa in?

 

Mild intermittent
 

Mild persistent
 

Moderate persistent

· Question 15

 

Which of the following is the   most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known   allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep?

 

Penicillin V 500 milligrams PO every 8 hours for 10 days
 

Ampicillin 250 milligrams PO twice a day for 10 days
 

Clarithromycin 500 milligrams po daily for 7 days

 

None of the above

· Question 16

 

A cashier complains of dull   ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg   elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the   day. What is the most likely cause of these problems?

 

Congestive heart failure
 

Varicose veins

 

Deep vein thrombosis

 

Arterial insufficiency

· Question 17

 

Which statement below is   correct about pertussis?

 

It is also called whooping cough
 

It begins with symptoms like strep throat
 

It lasts about 3 weeks
 

It occurs most commonly in toddlers and young children

· Question 18

 

Which of the following is the   most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis?

 

Pneumonia
 

Asthma
 

Sinusitis
 

Pertussis

· Question 19

 

A 70 year old patient presents   with left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, a markedly tender palpable   abdominal wall, fever, and leukocytosis. Of the following terms, which   correctly describes the suspected condition?

 

Diverticulosis
 

Diverticula

 

Diverticulitis
 

Diverticulum

· Question 20

 

Sylvia, age 83, presents with a   3 day history of pain and burning in the left forehead. This morning she   noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect?

 

Varicella

 

Herpes zoster

 

Syphilis

 

Rubella

· Question 21

 

A 33-year-old female is   admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most   common cause of pancreatitis is:

 

Alcohol
 

Gallstones
 

Medications
 

Pregnancy

· Question 22

 

When a patient presents with symptoms   of acute gallbladder disease, what is the appropriate nurse practitioner   action?

 

Order abdominal x-rays
 

Order an abdominal ultrasound
 

Refer the patient to a surgeon for evaluation
 

Prescribe pain medication

· Question 23

 

A false-positive result with   the fecal occult blood test can result from:

 

ingestion of large amounts of vitamin C
 

a high dietary intake of rare cooked beef
 

a colonic neoplasm that is not bleeding
 

stool that has been stored before testing

· Question 24

 

A 76-year-old male   complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain.   Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult   blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine.   The best diagnostic test for this patient is:

 

Colonoscopy
 

Small bowel follow-through
 

Barium enema
 

CT abdomen

· Question 25

 

A patient presents to urgent   care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The   echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner   knows that these findings are consistent with:

 

Mitral regurgitation
 

Systolic heart failure
 

Cardiac myxoma
 

Diastolic heart failure

· Question 26

 

Maxine, Age 76, has just been   given a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following is an indication that   she should be hospitalized?

 

Multilobar involvement on chest x-ray with the inability to take oral     medications
 

Alert and oriented, slightly high but stable vital signs, and no one     to take care of her at home
 

Sputum and gram positive organisms
 

A complete blood count showing leukocytosis

· Question 27

 

A 55 year old man is diagnosed   with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him:

 

“It is the most common cause of death in patients with skin cancer.”
 

“It can be cured with surgical excision or radiation therapy.”
 

“It is a slow growing skin cancer that rarely undergoes malignant     changes.”
 

“It can be cured using 5-flurouracil cream twice daily for 2 to 4     weeks.”

· Question 28

 

Expected spirometry readings   when the patient has chronic emphysema include:

 

Decreased residual volume (RV)
 

Increased vital capacity (VC)
 

Increased forced expiratory volume (FEV-1)
 

Increased total lung capacity (TLC)

· Question 29

 

An 80-year-old male   admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse   practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s   dysphagia is:

 

Esophageal cancer
 

Chest pain
 

GERD
 

A and C
 

All of the above

· Question 30

 

A 40 year old female with   history of frequent sun exposure presents with a multicolored lesion on her   back. It has irregular borders and is about 11mm in diameter. What should the   nurse practitioner suspect?

 

Squamous cell carcinoma
 

Malignant melanoma
 

A common nevus
 

Basal cell carcinoma

· Question 31

 

Which of the following is not a   goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis?

 

Prevent intestinal obstruction
 

Provide adequate nutrition
 

Promote clearance of secretions
 

Replace water-soluble vitamins

· Question 32

 

The nurse practitioner is   performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African-American man. Which of   the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African-Americans and   other dark-skinned individuals?

 

Scalp
 

Nails
 

Feet
 

B and C
 

All of the above

· Question 33

 

An adult presents with tinea   corporis. Which item below is a risk factor for its development?

 

Topical steroid use
 

Topical antibiotic use
 

A recent laceration
 

Cold climates

· Question 34

 

A patient has experienced   nausea and vomiting, headache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps,   and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to   the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most   appropriate response?

 

Prescribe loperamide (Immodium) or atropine-diphenoxylate (Lomotil)     and a clear liquid diet for 24 hours.
 

Prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as ciprofloxacin (Cipro),     and symptom management.
 

Offer an anti-emetic medication such as ondansetron (Zofran) and     provide oral fluid and electrolyte replacement instruction.
 

Order stool cultures.

· Question 35

 

Janine, age 29, has numerous   transient lesions that come and go, and she is diagnosed with urticaria. What   do you order?

 

Aspirin

 

NSAIDs

 

Opioids

 

Antihistamines

· Question 36

 

Of the following signs   and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical   manifestation is:

 

Peripheral edema
 

Weight gain
 

Shortness of breath
 

Nocturnal dyspnea

· Question 37

 

A 16 year old male presents   with mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical adenopathy, and   palatine petechiae. Without a definitive diagnosis for this patient, what   drug would be least appropriate to prescribe?

 

Ibuprofen

 

Erythromycin

 

Amoxicillin

 

Acetaminophen

· Question 38

 

A 70 year old man who walks 2   miles every day complains of pain in his left calf when he is walking. The   problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 2   mile walk. What question asked during the history, if answered affirmatively,   would suggest a diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans?

 

“Are you wearing your usual shoes?”
 

“Do you also have chest pain when you have leg pain?”
 

“Is your leg pain relieved by rest?”
 

“Do you ever have the same pain in the other leg?”

· Question 39

 

Which of the following   statements about malignant melanomas is true?

 

They usually occur in older adult males

 

The patient has no family history of melanoma

 

They are common in blacks

 

The prognosis is directly related to the thickness of the lesion

· Question 40

 

Sheila, age 78, presents with a   chief complaint of waking up during the night coughing. You examine her and   find an S3 heart sound, pulmonary crackles that do not clear with coughing,   and peripheral edema. What do you suspect?

 

Asthma

 

Nocturnal allergies
 

Valvular disease
 

Heart failure

· Question 41

 

Which antibiotic would be the   most effective in treating community acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a young   adult without any comorbid conditions?

 

Erythromycin
 

Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
 

Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
 

Penicillin

· Question 42

 

Which of the following   dermatologic vehicles are the most effective in absorbing moisture and   decreasing friction?

 

Powders
 

Gels
 

Creams
 

Lotion

· Question 43

 

A 70 year old patient presents   with a slightly raised, scaly, erythematous patch on her forehead. She admits   to having been a “sun worshiper.” The nurse practitioner suspects actinic   keratosis. This lesion is a precursor to:

 

Squamous cell carcinoma
 

Basal cell carcinoma
 

Malignant melanoma
 

Acne vulgaris

· Question 44

 

An elderly patient is being   seen in the clinic for complaint of “weak spells” relieved by sitting or   lying down. How should the nurse practitioner proceed with the physical   examination?

 

Assist the patient to a standing position and take her blood     pressure.
 

Assess the patient’s cranial nerves.
 

Compare the patient’s blood pressure lying first, then sitting, and     then standing.
 

Compare the amplitude of the patient’s radial and pedal pulses.

· Question 45

 

What oral medication might be   used to treat chronic cholethiasis in a patient who is a poor candidate for   surgery?

 

Ursodiol
 

Ibuprofen
 

Prednisone
 

Surgery is the only answer

· Question 46

 

A 46-year-old female with a   past medical history of diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous right   auricle and is diagnosed with malignant otitis externa. The nurse   practitioner knows that the most likely causative organism for this patient’s   problem is:

 

Staphylococcus aureus
 

Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
 

Haemophilus influenza
 

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

· Question 47

 

Which of the following is not a   symptom of irritable bowel syndrome?

 

Painful diarrhea

 

Painful constipation

 

Cramping and abdominal pain

 

Weight loss

· Question 48

 

A patient comes in complaining   of 1 week of pain in the posterior neck with difficulty turning the head to   the right. What additional history is needed?

 

Any recent trauma

 

Difficulty swallowing

 

Stiffness in the right shoulder

 

Change in sleeping habits

· Question 49

 

Marvin, age 56, is a smoker   with diabetes. He has just been diagnosed as hypertensive. Which of the   following drugs has the potential to cause the development of bronchial   asthma and inhibit gluconeogenesis?

 

ACE Inhibitor
 

Beta Blocker
 

Calcium channel blocker
 

Diuretic

· Question 50

 

The differential diagnosis for   a patient complaining of a sore throat includes which of the following?

 

Gonococcal infection
 

Thrush
 

Leukoplakia
 

B only
 

A, B, and C

· Question 51

 

A patient presents to the   primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that   started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an   erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient’s right eye to   his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most   likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is:

 

Rhus dermatitis
 

Ophthalmic zoster
 

Chemosis
 

Optic neuritis

· Question 52

 

Before initiating an HMG   CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders   liver function studies. The patient’s aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated.   What laboratory test(s) should be ordered?

 

Serologic markers for hepatitis
 

Serum bilirubin
 

Serum cholesterol with HDL and LDL
 

A liver biopsy

· Question 53

 

A patient with elevated lipids   has been started on lovastatin. After 3 weeks of therapy, he calls to report   generalized muscle aches. The nurse practitioner should suspect:

 

A drug interaction

 

Hepatic dysfunction
 

Hypersensitivity to lovastatin

 

Rhabdomyolysis

· Question 54

 

Treatment of acute vertigo   includes:

 

Bedrest and an antihistamine
 

Fluids and a decongestant
 

A sedative and decongestant
 

Rest and a low sodium diet

· Question 55

 

Treatment of H.pylori includes   which of the following?

 

Proton pump inhibitor
 

Antibiotic therapy
 

Bismuth subsalicylate
 

A and B
 

A, B, and C

· Question 56

 

Carl, age 78, is brought to the   office by his son, who states that his father has been unable to see clearly   since last night. Carl reports that his vision is “like looking through a   veil.” He also sees floaters and flashing lights but is not having any pain.   What do you suspect?

 

Cataracts
 

Glaucoma
 

Retinal detachment
 

Iritis

· Question 57

 

In order to decrease deaths   from lung cancer:

 

All smokers should be screened annually
 

All patients should be screened annually
 

Only high risk patients should be screened routinely
 

Patients should be counseled to quit smoking

· Question 58

 

John, age 33, has a total   cholesterol level of 188 mgdL. How often should he be screened for   hypercholesterolemia?

 

Every 5 years
 

Every 2 years
 

Every year
 

Whenever blood work is done

· Question 59

 

Mort is hypertensive. Which of   the following factors influenced your choice of using an alpha blocker as the   antihypertensive medication?

 

Mort is black
 

Mort also has congestive heart failure
 

Mort has benign prostatic hyperplasia
 

Mort has frequent migraine headaches

· Question 60

 

John, age 59, presents with   recurrent, sharply circumscribed red papules and plaques with a powdery white   scale on the extensor aspect of his elbows and knees. What do you suspect?

 

Actinic keratosis

 

Eczema

 

Psoriasis

 

Seborrheic dermatitis

· Question 61

 

Harriet, a 79-year-old woman,   comes to your office every 3 months for follow up on her hypertension. Her   medications include one baby aspirin daily, Lisinopril 5mg daily, and Calcium   1500 mg daily. At today’s visit. Her blood pressure is 17089. According to   JNC VIII guidelines, what should you do next to control Harriet’s blood   pressure?

 

Increase her Lisinopril to 20mg daily
 

Add a thiazide diuretic to the Lisinopril 5mg daily
 

Discontinue the Lisinopril and start a combination of ACE Inhibitor     and calcium channel blocker
 

Discontinue the Lisinopril and start a diuretic

· Question 62

 

An active 65-year-old man under   your care has known acquired valvular aortic stenosis and mitral   regurgitation. He also has a history of infectious endocarditis. He has   recently been told he needs elective replacement of his aortic valve. When he   comes into the office you discover that he has 10 remaining teeth in poor   repair. Your recommendation would be to:

 

defer any further dental work until his valve replacement is completed

 

instruct him to have dental     extraction done cautiously, having no more than 2 teeth per visit removed.

 

suggest he consult with his     oral surgeon about having all the teeth removed at once and receiving     appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis

 

coordinate with his cardiac and oral surgeons to have the tooth     extractions and valve replacement done at the same time to reduce the risk     of anesthetic complications.

· Question 63

 

Appropriate therapy for peptic   ulcer disease (PUD) is:

 

Primarily by eradication of infection
 

Based on etiology
 

Aimed at diminishing prostaglandin synthesis
 

Dependent on cessation of NSAID use

· Question 64

 

Shirley, age 58, has been a   diabetic for 7 years. Her blood pressure is normal. Other than her diabetes   medications, what would you prescribe today during her routine office visit?

 

A calcium channel blocker
 

A beta blocker
 

An ACE Inhibitor
 

No hypertension medication

· Question 65

 

Medicare is a federal program   administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). The CMS   has developed guidelines for Evaluation and Management coding, which all providers   are expected to follow when coding patient visits for reimbursement. Which of   the following is an important consideration regarding billing practices?

 

It is important to “undercode” so that one does not get charged with     Medicare fraud

 

The practice of “overcoding” is essential in this age of decreasing     reimbursements

 

Failing to bill for billable services will lead to unnecessarily low     revenues

 

Time spent with the patient is a very important determinant of billing

· Question 66

 

A 2 year old presents with a   white pupillary reflex. What is the most likely cause of this finding?

 

Viral conjunctivitis

 

Glaucoma

 

Corneal abrasion

 

Retinoblastoma

· Question 67

 

Harvey has had Meniere’s   disease for several years. He has some hearing loss but now has persistent   vertigo. What treatment might be instituted to relieve the vertigo?

 

Pharmacological therapy
 

A labyrinthectomy
 

A vestibular neurectomy
 

Wearing an earplug in the ear with the most hearing loss

· Question 68

 

Which of the following is not a   risk factor for coronary arterial insufficiency?

 

Hyperhomocysteinemia
 

Smoking
 

Genetic factors
 

Alcohol ingestion

· Question 69

 

An 18-year-old female presents   to the urgent care center complaining of severe pruritus in both eyes that   started 2 days ago. Associated symptoms include a headache and fatigue. On   examination, the nurse practitioner notes some clear discharge from both eyes   and some erythema of the eyelids and surrounding skin. Which of the following   is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

 

Allergic conjunctivitis
 

Bacterial conjunctivitis
 

Gonococcal conjunctivitis
 

Viral conjunctivitis

· Question 70

 

A 20 year old is diagnosed with   mild persistent asthma. What drug combination would be most effective in   keeping him symptom-free?

 

A long-acting bronchodilator

 

An inhaled corticosteroid and cromolyn
 

Theophylline and a short acting bronchodilator
 

A bronchodilator PRN and an inhaled corticosteroid

· Question 71

 

Acute rheumatic fever is an   inflammatory disease which can follow infection with:

 

Group A Streptococcus
 

Staphlococcus areus
 

Β-hemolytic Streptococcus
 

Streptococcus pyogenes

· Question 72

 

A 60 year old male diabetic   patient presents with redness, tenderness, and edema of the left lateral   aspect of his face. His left eyelid is grossly edematous. He reports history   of a toothache in the past week which “is better.” His temperature is 100°F and   pulse is 102 bpm. The most appropriate initial action is to:

 

Start an oral antibiotic, refer the patient to a dentist immediately,     and follow up within 3 days
 

Order mandibular x-rays and question the patient about physical abuse
 

Start an oral antibiotic, mouth swishes with an oral anti-infective,     and an analgesic
 

Initiate a parenteral antibiotic and consider hospital admission

· Question 73

 

If a patient presents with a   deep aching, red eye and there is no discharge, you should suspect:

 

Iritis
 

Allergic conjunctivitis
 

Viral conjunctivitis

 

Bacterial conjunctivitis

· Question 74

 

The National Cholesterol   Education Program’s Adult Treatment Panel III recommends that the goal for   low density lipoproteins in high risk patients be less than:

 

160 mgdL
 

130 mgdL
 

100 mgdL
 

70 mgdL

· Question 75

 

A patient presents with   classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). He is instructed   on life style modifications and drug therapy for 8 weeks. Three months later   he returns, reporting that he was “fine” as long as he took the medication.   The most appropriate next step is:

 

Referral for surgical intervention such as a partial or complete     fundoplication
 

Dependent upon how sever the practitioner believes the condition
 

To repeat the 8 week course of drug therapy while continuing lifestyle     modifications
 

Investigation with endoscopy, manometry, andor pH testing

· Question 76

 

Group A β-hemolytic   streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is most common in which age group?

 

Under 3 years of age
 

Preschool children
 

6 to 12 years of age
 

Adolescents

· Question 77

 

The most appropriate treatment   for a child with mild croup is:

 

A bronchodilator
 

An antibiotic
 

A decongestant
 

A cool mist vaporizer

· Question 78

 

A child complains that his   “throat hurts” with swallowing. His voice is very “throaty” and he is   hyperextending his neck to talk. Examination reveals asymmetrical swelling of   his tonsils. His uvula is deviated to the left. What is the most likely   diagnosis?

 

Peritonsillar abscess
 

Thyroiditis
 

Mononucleosis
 

Epiglottitis

· Question 79

 

Salmeterol (Servent) is   prescribed for a patient with asthma. What is the most important teaching   point about this medication?

 

It is not effective during an acute asthma attack.
 

It may take 2 to 3 days to begin working.
 

This drug works within 10 minutes.
 

This drug may be used by patients 6 years and older.

· Question 80

 

Which intervention listed below   is safe for long term use by an adult with constipation?

 

Bulk-forming agents
 

Stool softeners
 

Laxatives
 

Osmotic agents

· Question 81

 

A 40 year old presents with a   hordeolum. The nurse practitioner teaches the patient to:

 

Apply a topical antibiotic and warm compresses.
 

Apply cool compresses and avoid touching the hordeolum.
 

Use an oral antibiotic and eye flushes.
 

Apply light palpation to facilitate drainage.

· Question 82

 

Sarah has allergic rhinitis and   is currently being bothered by nasal congestion. Which of the following meds   ordered for allergic rhinitis would be most appropriate?

 

An antihistamine intranasal spray

 

A decongestant nasal spray
 

Ipratropium
 

Omalizumab

· Question 83

 

What is the Gold standard for   the diagnosis of asthma?

 

Patient’s perception of clogged airways
 

Validated quality-of-life questionnaires

 

Bronchoscopy
 

Spirometry

· Question 84

 

A patient complains of “an aggravating   cough for the past 6 weeks.” There is no physiological cause for the cough.   Which medication is most likely causing the cough?

 

Methyldopa
 

Enalapril
 

Amlodipine
 

Hydrochlorothiazide

· Question 85

 

Stacy, age 27, states that she   has painless, white, slightly raised patches in her mouth. They are probably   caused by:

 

Herpes simplex
 

Aphthous ulcers
 

Candidiasis
 

Oral cancer

· Question 86

 

Risk factors for acute otitis   media (AOM) include all of the following except:

 

Household cigarette smoke
 

Group daycare attendance
 

Sibling history of acute otitis media
 

African-American ethnicity
· Question 87

 

Which of the following can   result from chronic inflammation of a meibomian gland?

 

A chalazion
 

Uveitis
 

Keratitis
 

A pterygium

· Question 88

 

What conditions must be met for   you to bill “incident to” the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from   Medicare?

 

You must initiate the plan of care for the patient

 

The physician must be on-site and engaged in patient care

 

You must be employed as an independent contractor

 

You must be the main health care provider who sees the patient

· Question 89

 

Of the following choices, the   least likely cause of cough is:

 

Asthma
 

Gastroesophageal reflux
 

Acute pharyngitis

 

Allergic rhinitis

· Question 90

 

The most common correlate(s)   with chronic bronchitis and emphysema is(are):

 

Familial and genetic factors
 

Cigarette smoking
 

Air pollution
 

Occupational environment

· Question 91

 

Which choice below is least   effective for alleviating symptoms of the common cold?

 

Antihistamines

 

Oral decongestants

 

Topical decongestants

 

Antipyretics

· Question 92

 

When teaching a patient with   hypertension about restricting sodium, you would include which of the   following instructions?

 

Diets with markedly reduced intakes of sodium may be associated with     other beneficial effects beyond blood pressure     control
 

Sodium restriction can cause serious adverse effects
 

A goal of 3 g of sodium chloride or 1.2 g of sodium per day is easily     achievable
 

Seventy-five of sodium intake is derived from processed foods

· Question 93

 

Which of the following heart   murmurs warrants the greatest concern?

 

Systolic murmur
 

Venous hum murmur
 

Diastolic murmur
 

Flow murmur

· Question 94

 

A patient presents with an   inflamed upper eyelid margin. The conjunctiva is red and there is particulate   matter along the upper eyelid. The patient complains of a sensation that   “there is something in my eye.” What is the diagnosis and how should it be   treated?

 

Hordeolum; treat with a topical antibiotic and warm compress
 

Conjunctivitis; treat with topical antibiotic and warm compresses
 

Blepharitis; treat with warm compresses and gentle debridement with a     cotton swab
 

Chalazion; refer to an ophthalmologist for incision and drainage

· Question 95

 

A 57-year-old male presents to   urgent care complaining of substernal chest discomfort for the past hour. The   EKG reveals ST elevations in Leads II, III, and AVF. The nurse practitioner   is aware that these changes are consistent with which myocardial infarction   territory?

 

Inferior wall
 

Anterior wall
 

Apical wall
 

Lateral wall

· Question 96

 

The nurse practitioner observes   a tympanic membrane that is opaque, has decreased mobility, and is without   bulging or inflammation. The least likely diagnosis for this patient   is:
 

Acute otitis media (AOM)
 

Otitis media with effusion
 

Mucoid otitis media
 

Serous otitis media

· Question 97

 

Alan, age 54, notices a bulge   in his midline every time he rises from bed in the morning. You tell him it   is a ventral hernia, also known as:

 

inguinal hernia

 

epigastric hernia
 

umbilical hernia
 

incisional hernia

· Question 98

 

A 58-year-old man is diagnosed   with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which   of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s   disorder?

 

Omeprazole
 

Ranitidine
 

An antacid
 

None of the above

· Question 99

 

Larry, age 66, is a smoker with   hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He is 6 months post-MI. To prevent   reinfarction, the most important behavior change that he can make is to:

 

Quit smoking
 

Maintain aggressive hypertension therapy
 

Stick to a low-fat, low-sodium diet
 

Continue with his exercise program

· Question 100

 

Risk factors for acute arterial   insufficiency include which of the following?

 

Recent myocardial infarction
 

Atrial fibrillation
 

Atherosclerosis
 

All of the above

· Question 101

 

Impetigo and folliculitis are   usually successfully treated with:

 

Systemic antibiotics
 

Topical antibiotics
 

Topical steroid creams
 

Cleansing and debridement

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Topic 3 DQ 2

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What do the four parts of the Christian biblical narrative (i.e., creation, fall, redemption, and restoration) say about the nature of God and of reality in relation to the reality of sickness and disease?

1. From where would one find comfort and hope in the light of illness according to this narrative? Explain in detail each part of the narrative above and analyze the implications.

 

Resource material Chapters 3/ Citation:

Hoehner, P. (2020). Practicing Dignity: An Introduction to Christian Values and Decision Making in Health Care. Biomedical Ethics in the Christian Narrative https://www.gcumedia.com/digital-resources/grand-canyon-university/2020/practicing-dignity_an-introduction-to-christian-values-and-decision-making-in-health-care_1e.php

 

Student answers:

 

Merie Clercy-Bernadel Re: Topic 3 DQ 2

In the Christian creation narrative, it is believed that God created the word, the first man and woman. Thus, God has the power over human beings to inflict pain and suffering. Besides he has the power to prevent suffering and pain from his people. Nevertheless, the fall of man came when they sinned against the will of God (Isaac et al., 2016). Thus they repaid for their act through pain and suffering. Thus the pain that Christian undergo is symbolic to the provisions from the creation and fall narrative. Nevertheless, the presence of suffering is not the end of man, since they have a chance for redemption (Isaac et al., 2016). One has to renounce their sins, accept God to be redeemed from the pain and suffering. This is the basis for spirituality and good health where man can get restoration from God. Despite this, some people suffer to the point of dying. God assures his people that there is external life after death. Therefore, disease and suffering are the reality and form part of the mortal world of life after death.

Based on the Christian biblical narrative, one can find comfort in the belief that God have the power to heal. Besides the comfort ca be attained if the patient beliefs that God has power over diseases and can heal miraculously (Best et al., 2020). Through this approach, the sick can attach meaning to their pain and suffering through religion and their spirituality. Similarly, religion and spiritual helps the patients to cope with the illness and diseases. Research has showcase the link between spirituality and health. From the creation narrative, human beings are created in the image of God, thus life is sacred and the sick should be treated with love and compassion. This helps in sharing the suffering with the sick and making sure they are hopeful and optimism of the work or God.

 

 

 

 

Yemisi Abolarinde Topic 3 DQ 2

 

The four parts of Christian Biblical narrative are very elaborative about the nature of God and

His love for humankind during sickness and disease.

Creation – God is the ultimate creator; he created the universe and everything in it. The

concept of Imago Dei explains the creation of man in God’s image (Ross, 2013).

 

Fall – The original sin is the start of the fall of humankind from the love and mercy of God.

Adam and Eve eating the forbidden tree and created original sin as well as death, disease, and

suffering, creating an estrangement from God.

Redemption – due to the love God has for humankind, he sent his only begotten son Jesus to

die for our sins.

Restoration – We look forward to the resurrection of Jesus when he returns, and the final

judgment of all people takes place (Topic 3: Biomedical Ethics in the Christian Narrative,

2019)

After falling short of God’s love and mercy, He gives us the knowledge to manufacture

medications and treatments to help prevent or treat some sickness and disease. We have

redemption from sin when we go to confession and confess our sins and try to lead a life that

God intended for us. We know that if we live a good life and follow God’s intentions, he will

relive us from sickness and disease. The four narratives give us hope and knowledge of the

nature of God, such as never giving up on his creations, provision of everlasting love, and

forgiveness to his creation despite our sins.

 
Victoria Coronado Re: Topic 3 DQ 2

 

Creation- God created his people for a purpose and in his image. When God described both his act of creating and the creation itself as good, it meant that it was valuable, and everything in its original state was the way it was supposed to be. The goodness that remains in the world even after the fall reminds one that God has called humans to live in his world, not to abandon or reject it. (Hoehner, 2020). God knew what he was doing when he created his people. Christians find comfort in that; they know that there is purpose for them.

 

The fall- Christians believe that sickness is brought by not being right with God. According to the Bible, the fall has universal and cosmic implications. Just as illness in the body can be viewed as a break in the homeostasis of the body’s physiology, the fall and subsequent separation from God broke the homeostasis of creation itself, bringing disease, sickness, suffering, and death (Hoehner, 2020).

 

Redemption- The restoration of Shalom that is the consequence of Jesus’s life, death, and resurrection has several implications for Christian ethics and the Christian view of disease, healing, and death (Hoehner, 2020). Health and salvation have a relationship; they work together for the people. When one becomes sick, people start to pray and ask God for healing.

 

Restoration- Death is something to grieve. It is not the way it is supposed to be. It is no small test of faith to hold a dying infant or to watch loved ones suffer at the end of their lives. The shortest verse of the Bible, “Jesus wept” (John 11:35), says that even though he knew he would bring him back to life, Jesus grieved over Lazarus’s death because of his great love for him (Hoehner, 2020). This is the hardest part for us all losing a loved one. We know that this is a part of life. God loves us and wants the best for us and wants us to live in eternity with him. This is the promise He gave us, and this gives the people reassurance that one day we will meet up with our loved ones.

 

 

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Cognitive Behavioral Therapy|2025

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Individual vs. Family CBT

Cognitive behavioral therapy is short-term psychotherapy that emphasizes the need for attitude change in order to maintain and promote behavior modification (Nichols, 2014). Cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) has been found to be effective in a broad range of disorders. CBT can be done as an individual treatment or in a family setting. Individual CBT has a broadly defined framework with an emphasis on harm-reduction, especially with clients that have anxiety and substance abuse (Wheeler, 2014).

Cognitive-behavioral therapy for families is also brief and is solution-focused. Family CBT is focused on supporting members to act and think in a more adaptive manner, along with learning to make better decisions to create a friendlier, calmer family environment (Nichols, 2014). An example from practicum is a male (T.M) that participates in individual CBT once a week and family CBT once a week. T.M is struggling with alcoholism.

He originally presented for individual CBT because he had been “told by his wife” that he had a problem with alcohol. He reported that he drank “a few vodka drinks” three times a week but none for six weeks. Individual CBT therapy is a collaborative process between the therapist and client that takes schemas and physiology into consideration when deciding the plan of care (Wheeler, 2014). We worked with him using open-ended questions to assist with obtaining cognitive and situational information.  He would become angry easily and it was a felt that he was not being truthful about his alcohol use. Each time he was questioned about it, the story would change. He attended two individual sessions and it was then recommended he begin family CBT with his significant other (S.M) because “things were not going well at home.”

With family CBT, cognitions, emotions, and behaviors are seen as having a mutual influence on one another (Nichols, 2014). The first session was stressful, to say the least. T.M began talking about his alcohol use. S.M interrupted and said, “what about that one-time last month at the hotel. You were seeing things.” He became defensive, raised his voice, and said, “I was drugged. It had nothing to do with drinking.” She then looked down and was tearful. When he left the room to use the bathroom, S.M questioned if he could be tested for alcohol. This led the therapist to believe that T.M’s last use was not six weeks ago.

T.M’s automatic thoughts were that his alcoholism was not a problem in the marriage or in life. One of the core principles in using CBT for SUDs is that the substance of abuse serves as a reinforcement of behavior (McHugh et al., 2010). Over time, the positive and negative reinforcing agents become associated with daily activities. CBT tries to decrease these effects by improving the events associated with abstinence or by developing skills to assist with reduction (McHugh et al., 2010).

It was noticed that when T.M was alone, his stories would change. But when his wife was in the room, he would look at her while he spoke to ensure what he was saying was accurate. The therapist informed the client that it would be appropriate to continue individual therapy and family CBT once a week with the recommendation of joining the ready for change group. The CBT model for substance use states that, when a person is trying to maintain sobriety or reduce substance use, they are likely to have a relapse (Morin et al., 2017).

Ready for change meetings was recommended because like this week’s media showed, clients may relate to others that are going through similar situations. Getting T.M to realize that his alcohol use is a problem, is the primary goal currently. This example was shared because it shows the difficulties that may be encountered with psychotherapy and that both individual and family may be needed to ensure that goals are met. Some challenges that counselors face when using CBT in the family setting are wondering if the structure of the session and if the proper techniques were effective (Ringle et al., 2015). Evaluating and consulting with peers may also assist with meeting client and family goals.

References

McHugh, R. K., Hearon, B. A., & Otto, M. W. (2010). Cognitive behavioral therapy for substance use disorders. The Psychiatric clinics of North America, 33(3), 511-25. doi:10.1016/j.psc.2010.04.012

Morin, J., Harris, M., & Conrod, P.  (2017, October 05). A Review of CBT Treatments for Substance Use Disorders. Oxford Handbooks Online. Ed.  Retrieved fromhttp://www.oxfordhandbooks.com/view/10.1093/oxfordhb/9780199935291.001.0001/oxfordhb-9780199935291-e-57.

Nichols, M. (2014). The essentials of family therapy (6th ed.). Boston, MA: Pearson.

Patterson, T. (2014). A Cognitive-Behavioral Systems Approach to Family Therapy. Journal of Family Psychotherapy, 25(2), 132–144. https://doi-org.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/10.1080/08975353.2014.910023

Ringle, V. A., Read, K. L., Edmunds, J. M., Brodman, D. M., Kendall, P. C., Barg, F., & Beidas, R. S. (2015). Barriers to and Facilitators in the Implementation of Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy for Youth Anxiety in the Community. Psychiatric services (Washington, D.C.), 66(9), 938-45. doi:10.1176/appi.ps.201400134

Wheeler, K. (Ed.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to

guide for evidence-based practice. New York, NY: Springer.

POST 2

 

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy is one of the most effective psychotherapy approaches, whether it be used in group, family, or individual treatment. It is important to understand the purpose of it what its process consists off. It can be used to treat different mental health conditions, ranging from addiction to more severe illnesses. Its approach is to work with the patient into strategizing ways to change unhealthy thoughts and behaviors. Throughout the process, the patient not only learns solving skills, but also to re-evaluate and learn how to understand other’s perspectives, skill that helps build their confidence.

Some believe group therapy is more effective than individual therapy, as established by Kellett, Clarke, and Matthews (2007, p. 211). It has been established that CBT in general can be effective, but based on the Johnson Family Session video, it leads me to believe that either group/family or individual would be effective depending on the condition that is being treated. It is clear from the video that the girl who had been sexually assaulted at the fraternity does not believe talking or sharing her experience, even if it is with other girls who went through the same experience, will help in any way. She still has some internal issues that need to be addressed individually in order to make progress and get her to a place where she can participate in group/family therapy with an awareness that it will help her and purpose to it. Another important aspect of having a client be committed to the treatment is that research has showed “Poor compliance can adversely affect the remaining group members who may become worried or insecure” (Söchting, Lau, Ogrodniczuk, 2018, p. 185).

An example during practicum that supports my belief is the case of a terminally ill patient who had been recommended comfort care through hospice. She was ready to do so, understood and accepted her prognosis, but her daughters and husband were in denial. Every time they participated in a family session the patient held back on her wishes and verbalized whatever their wishes were as if they were her own. When treated as an individual client, she would express her concerns of not being able to “disappoint and abandon my family”. She had suffered all her life from anxiety, insecurities, severe depression, and low self-esteem. Those were issues that should have been addressed individually before she could fully engage in a family session in a healthy and productive way, if she would’ve had the time. CBT would have still been the choice of treatment for individual therapy for this client, as evidenced by Driessen et al. who stated it “is the psychotherapy method with the best evidence-base in the treatment of depression” (2017, p. 654). Not being fully engaged in the program, or believing the treatment will not help, or having other issues that need to be addressed on an individual basis, are all challenges presented in a family setting when relying on CBT.

References

Kellett, S., Clarke, S., & Matthews, L. (2007). Delivering Group Psychoeducational CBT in

Primary Care: Comparing Outcomes with Individual CBT and Individual

Psychodynamic-Interpersonal Psychotherapy. British Journal of Clinical Psychology,

           46(2).

Söchting, I., Lau, M., & Ogrodniczuk, J. (2018). Predicting Compliance in Group CBT Using the

Group Therapy Questionnaire. International Journal of Group Psychotherapy, 68(2).

Driessen,E., Van, H. L., Peen, J., Don, F. J., Twisk, J. W. R., Cuijpers, P., & Dekker, J. J. M.

(2017). Cognitive-Behavioral Versus Psychodynamic Therapy for Major Depression:

Secondary Outcomes of a Randomized Clinical Trial. Journal of Consulting Clinical

Psychology, 85)7).

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Benchmark – Capstone Project Change Proposal|2025

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In this assignment, students will pull together the change proposal project components they have been working on throughout the course to create a proposal inclusive of sections for each content focus area in the course. At the conclusion of this project, the student will be able to apply evidence-based research steps and processes required as the foundation to address a clinically oriented problem or issue in future practice.

Students will develop a 1,500 word paper that includes the following information as it applies to the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need profiled in the capstone change proposal:

  1. Background
  2. Problem statement
  3. Purpose of the change proposal
  4. PICOT
  5. Literature search strategy employed
  6. Evaluation of the literature
  7. Applicable change or nursing theory utilized
  8. Proposed implementation plan with outcome measures
  9. Identification of potential barriers to plan implementation, and a discussion of how these could be      overcome
  10. Appendix section, if tables, graphs, surveys, educational materials, etc. are created

Review the feedback on the Topic 3 assignment, PICOT Statement Paper, and Topic 6 assignment, Literature Review. Use the feedback to make appropriate revisions to the portfolio components before submitting.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide.

NO PLAGIARISM PLEASE, MINIMUM OF SIX REFERENCES.

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Home Safety Assessment|2025

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Home Safety Assessment

It is important to identify health issues or concerns that may impact an individual or family in any setting.  This identification can help the nurse to address health promotion and disease prevention.

To complete this activity, you must complete the Family Support Assessment activity.  Click on Enter Sentinel City®.  Once in the city, click on the map to locate the apartment dwelling in Nightingale Square.  Approach the door next to the laundromat and enter the apartment.  Here you will complete the Home Safety Assessment by noting any health, safety, and environmental hazards in the apartment.  Note as many of the hazards that you observe.  Select and prioritize the top two hazards for health, safety, and environmental areas for a total of six hazards that the healthcare professional should address first:

  1. #1 = most serious hazard-life threatening
  2. #2 = second most important-potential to affect the most people or cause long-term injury

Try to avoid prioritizing the same hazard in multiple categories.  Provide an evidence-based rationale and a recommendation for addressing the top two hazards in each category.  Click the “Family Support Assessment” tab at the top of the screen and review the information on the form.

Reading and Resources

Chapter 16 pages 297-316, Chapter 23 pages 395-404, Chapter 20 pages 367-375, Chapter 26 pages 439-447 in Fundamentals of Case Management Practice.

Review clinical guidelines of the AHRQ

Clinical Guidelines and Recommendations

Evidence-based research provides the basis for sound clinical practice guidelines and recommendations. The datab…

Additional Instructions:

  • All submissions should have a title page and reference page.
  • Utilize a minimum of two scholarly resources.
  • Adhere to grammar, spelling and punctuation criteria.
  • Adhere to APA compliance guidelines.
  • Adhere to the chosen Submission Option for Delivery of Activity guidelines.

**Family Support Assessment Required

Submission Option

Instruction:

Paper

  • 4 to 6-page paper. Include title and reference pages

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Implementation of the IOM Future of Nursing Report|2025

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In a formal paper of 1,000-1,250 words you will discuss the work of the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Committee Initiative on the Future of Nursing and the Institute of Medicine research that led to the IOM report, “Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.” Identify the importance of the IOM “Future of Nursing” report related to nursing practice, nursing education and nursing workforce development. What is the role of state-based action coalitions and how do they advance goals of the Future of Nursing: Campaign for Action?

Explore the Campaign for Action webpage (you may need to research your state’s website independently if it is not active on this site): http://campaignforaction.org/states

Review your state’s progress report by locating your state and clicking on one of the six progress icons for: education, leadership, practice, interpersonal collaboration, diversity, and data. You can also download a full progress report for your state by clicking on the box located at the bottom of the webpage.

In a paper of 1,000-1,250 words:

  1. Discuss the work of the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Committee Initiative on the Future of Nursing and the Institute of Medicine research that led to the IOM report, “Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health.”
  2. Identify the importance of the IOM “Future of Nursing” report related to nursing practice, nursing education and nursing workforce development.
  3. What is the role of state-based action coalitions and how do they advance goals of the Future of Nursing: Campaign for Action?

Summarize two initiatives spearheaded by your state’s action coalition. In what ways do these initiatives advance the nursing profession? What barriers to advancement currently exist in your state? How can nursing advocates in your state overcome these barriers?

A minimum of three scholarly references are required for this assignment.

RUBRICS

1 Provided an original summary of the key messages of the IOM report, Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health. Any specific references should be cited.

2 Identify the role of the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation Initiative and the American Association of Retired Persons on the Future of Nursing Campaign for Action and the State Based Action Coalitions

3. Identify the importance of the IOM FON report related to the nursing workforce

4 Discuss the intent of the Future of Nursing Campaign for Action

5 Identify the rationale of state-based action coalitions

6 Discuss one state-based action coalition and two initiatives

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SOAP NOTE ON UTI|2025

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Select a patient with a common condition(s) from your practicum experience this week. I am writing on a patient with UTI Submit a correctly formatted SOAP note on that patient in a Word document.  I attached rubric, school soap note template and a sample soap note on UTI.

APA from within the last 5 years. cite appropriately.  APA 7 edition. 0 turnitin.

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