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how the concept of health has changed overtime|2025

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

In the nineteenth century, health was described as the absence of disease.Because of the lack of sanitary conditions, diseases spread more widely.Sanitary conditions were better known in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, and steps were taken to adequately control them, resulting in diseases that were more manageable. Vaccines were invented in the twentieth century, and the concept of health changed from cure to prevention. As the field of health promotion expanded, the term “health” came to mean a combination of factors such as physical, emotional, and spiritual well-being (Falkner, 2018). Today’s goals is to create a community of wellness in which health promotion and disease prevention take precedence over seeking careonce an illness has developed.We now realize that fitness and wellbeing go hand in hand with disease prevention. We may not always have control over our health, but we can make decisions to improve our well-being.

Promoting good health has existed for as long as there have been efforts to improve the public’s health. “The method of encouraging people to gain control over and improve their health is known as health promotion” (World Health Organization, 2019, para. 1).It shifts the emphasis away from human actions and toward a variety of social and environmental interventions.The nurse’s position in health promotion is critical, and it includes being an advocate, a provider of care/services, a care manager, an educator, and a researcher. The nurse is pushing reform to strengthen procedures in order to improve patient safety by using EBP to do so.

Falkner, A. (2018) Health promotion in nursing care. In Grand Canyon University (Eds.), Health promotion: Health and wellness across the continuum. Retrieved from

World Health Organization. (2019). What is health promotion. Retrieved from https://www.who.int/healthpromotion/fact-sheet/e

Respond using 200-300 words APA format with references supporting in discussion

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Scientific Paradigms

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Write a 195-word message in which you discuss:

1-Why are both paradigms important to the development of nursing science?

2-How do the authors justify having an alternative hierarchy of evidence for nursing, as contrasted with medicine (pp. 24–26, Types of Evidence and Evidence Hierarchies, Ch. 2, Nursing Research)?

Read instructions: ( used attached documents to write the word message discussion. Stay on topic given on the 2 questions above. all information needed is been attached. thank you. )

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Soap Note 1 Acute Conditions

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Soap Note 1 Acute Conditions

Soap Note 1 Acute Conditions (15 Points) Due 06/15/2019

Pick any Acute Disease from Weeks 1-5 (see syllabus)

Soap notes will be uploaded to Moodle and put through TURN-It-In (anti-Plagiarism program)

Turn it in Score must be less than 50% or will not be accepted for credit, must be your own work and in your own words. You can resubmit, Final submission will be accepted if less than 50%. Copy paste from websites or textbooks will not be accepted or tolerated. Please see College Handbook with reference to Academic Misconduct Statement.

Late Assignment Policy

Assignments turned in late will have 1 point taken off for every day assignment is late, after 7 days assignment will get grade of 0. No exceptions

Follow the MRU Soap Note Rubric as a guide:

Grading Rubric

Student______________________________________

This sheet is to help you understand what we are looking for, and what our margin remarks might be about on your write ups of patients. Since at all of the white-ups that you hand in are uniform, this represents what MUST be included in every write-up.

1) Identifying Data (___5pts): The opening list of the note. It contains age, sex, race, marital status, etc. The patient complaint should be given in quotes. If the patient has more than one complaint, each complaint should be listed separately (1, 2, etc.) and each addressed in the subjective and under the appropriate number.

2) Subjective Data (___30pts.): This is the historical part of the note. It contains the following:

a) Symptom analysis/HPI(Location, quality , quantity or severity, timing, setting, factors that make it better or worse, and associate manifestations.(10pts)

b) Review of systems of associated systems, reporting all pertinent positives and negatives (10pts).

c) Any PMH, family hx, social hx, allergies, medications related to the complaint/problem (10pts). If more than one chief complaint, each should be written u in this manner.

3) Objective Data(__25pt.): Vital signs need to be present. Height and Weight should be included where appropriate.

a) Appropriate systems are examined, listed in the note and consistent with those identified in 2b.(10pts).

b) Pertinent positives and negatives must be documented for each relevant system.

c) Any abnormalities must be fully described. Measure and record sizes of things (likes moles, scars). Avoid using “ok”, “clear”, “within normal limits”, positive/ negative, and normal/abnormal to describe things. (5pts).

4) Assessment (___10pts.): Diagnoses should be clearly listed and worded appropriately.

5) Plan (___15pts.): Be sure to include any teaching, health maintenance and counseling along with the pharmacological and non-pharmacological measures. If you have more than one diagnosis, it is helpful to have this section divided into separate numbered sections.

6) Subjective/ Objective, Assessment and Management and Consistent (___10pts.): Does the note support the appropriate differential diagnosis process? Is there evidence that you know what systems and what symptoms go with which complaints? The assessment/diagnoses should be consistent with the subjective section and then the assessment and plan. The management should be consistent with the assessment/ diagnoses identified.

7) Clarity of the Write-up(___5pts.): Is it literate, organized and complete?

Comments:

Total Score: ____________ Instructor: __________________________________

1 sample  SAMPLE Block format Soap Note Template.docx

SOAP NOTE SAMPLE FORMAT FOR MRC

 

Name:  LP

Date:

Time: 1315

 

Age: 30

Sex: F

 

SUBJECTIVE

 

CC:  

“I am having vaginal itching and pain in   my lower abdomen.”

 

HPI:  

Pt is a   30y/o AA female, who is a new patient that has recently moved to Miami. She seeks treatment today after   unsuccessful self-treatment of vaginal itching, burning upon urination, and   lower abdominal pain. She is concerned   for the presence of a vaginal or bladder infection, or an STD. Pt denies fever. She reports the itching and burning with   urination has been present for 3 weeks, and the abdominal pain has been   intermittent since months ago. Pt has   tried OTC products for the itching, including Monistat and Vagisil. She denies any other urinary symptoms,   including urgency or frequency. She   describes the abdominal pain as either sharp or dull. The pain level goes as high as 8 out of 10   at times. 200mg of PO Advil PRN   reduces the pain to a 7/10. Pt denies   any aggravating factors for the pain. Pt reports that she did start her menstrual cycle this morning, but   denies any other discharge other that light bleeding beginning today. Pt denies douching or the use of any   vaginal irritants. She reports that   she is in a stable sexual relationship, and denies any new sexual partners in   the last 90 days. She denies any   recent or historic known exposure to STDs. She reports the use of condoms with every coital experience, as well   as this being her only form of contraceptive. She reports normal monthly menstrual cycles that last 3-4 days. She reports dysmenorrhea, which she also   takes Advil for. She reports her last   PAP smear was in 7/2016, was normal, and reports never having an abnormal PAP   smear result. Pt denies any hx of   pregnancies. Other medical hx includes   GERD. She reports that she has an Rx   for Protonix, but she does not take it every day. Her family hx includes the presence of DM   and HTN.

 

Current Medications: 

Protonix   40mg PO Daily for GERD

MTV OTC   PO Daily

Advil   200mg OTC PO PRN for pain

 

PMHx:

Allergies: 

NKA & NKDA

Medication Intolerances: 

Denies

Chronic Illnesses/Major traumas

GERD

Hospitalizations/Surgeries

Denies

 

Family History

Father-   DM & HTN; Mother- HTN; Older sister- DM & HTN; Maternal and paternal   grandparents without known medical issues; 1 brother and 3 other sisters   without known medical issues; No children.

 

Social History

Lives   alone. Currently in a stable sexual   relationship with one man. Works for   DEFACS. Reports occasional alcohol   use, but denies tobacco or illicit drug use.

 

ROS

 

General 

Denies   weight change, fatigue, fever, night sweats

Cardiovascular

Denies   chest pain and edema. Reports rare palpitations that are relieved by drinking   water

 

Skin

Denies   any wounds, rashes, bruising, bleeding or skin discolorations, any changes in   lesions

Respiratory

Denies   cough. Reports dyspnea that accompanies the rare palpitations and is also   relieved by drinking water

 

Eyes

Denies corrective   lenses, blurring, visual changes of any kind

Gastrointestinal

Abdominal   pain (see HPI) and Hx of GERD. Denies   N/V/D, constipation, appetite changes

 

Ears

Denies   Ear pain, hearing loss, ringing in ears

Genitourinary/Gynecological

Reports   burning with urination, but denies frequency or urgency. Contraceptive and STD prevention includes   condoms with every coital event. Current stable sexual relationship with one man. Denies known historic or recent STD   exposure. Last PAP was 7/2016 and normal. Regular monthly menstrual cycle   lasting 3-4 days.

 

Nose/Mouth/Throat

Denies   sinus problems, dysphagia, nose bleeds or discharge

Musculoskeletal

Denies   back pain, joint swelling, stiffness or pain

 

Breast

Denies   SBE

Neurological

Denies syncope,   seizures, paralysis, weakness

 

Heme/Lymph/Endo

Denies   bruising, night sweats, swollen glands

Psychiatric

Denies   depression, anxiety, sleeping difficulties

 

OBJECTIVE

 

Weight   140lb

Temp -97.7

BP 123/82

 

Height 5’4”

Pulse 74

Respiration 18

 

General Appearance

Healthy   appearing adult female in no acute distress. Alert and oriented; answers   questions appropriately.

 

Skin

Skin is   normal color for ethnicity, warm, dry, clean and intact. No rashes or lesions   noted.

 

HEENT

Head is   norm cephalic, hair evenly distributed. Neck: Supple. Full ROM. Teeth are in   good repair.

 

Cardiovascular

S1, S2   with regular rate and rhythm. No extra heart sounds.

 

Respiratory

Symmetric   chest walls. Respirations regular and easy; lungs clear to auscultation   bilaterally.

 

Gastrointestinal

Abdomen   flat; BS active in all 4 quadrants. Abdomen soft, suprapubic   tender. No hepatosplenomegaly.

 

Genitourinary

Suprapubic   tenderness noted. Skin color normal   for ethnicity. Irritation noted at   labia majora, minora, and perineum. No ulcerated lesions noted. Lymph nodes   not palpable. Vagina pink and moist   without lesions. Discharge minimal,   thick, dark red, no odor. Cervix pink   without lesions. No CMT. Uterus normal size, shape, and consistency.

 

Musculoskeletal

Full   ROM seen in all 4 extremities as patient moved about the exam room.

 

Neurological 

Speech   clear. Good tone. Posture erect. Balance stable; gait normal.

 

Psychiatric

Alert   and oriented. Dressed in clean clothes. Maintains eye contact. Answers   questions appropriately.

 

Lab Tests

Urinalysis   – blood noted (pt. on menstrual period), but results negative for infection

Urine   culture testing unavailable

Wet   prep – inconclusive

STD   testing pending for gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, HIV, HSV 1 & 2, Hep B   & C

 

Special Tests- No ordered at this   time.

 

Diagnosis 

 

Differential Diagnoses

  • 1-Bacterial Vaginosis (N76.0)
  • 2- Malignant neoplasm of female genital organ,         unspecified. (C57.9)
  • 3-Gonococcal infection, unspecified. (A54.9)

Diagnosis

o Urinary   tract infection, site not specified. (N39.0) Candidiasis of vulva and vagina.   (B37.3) secondary to presenting symptoms (Colgan & Williams, 2011) & (Hainer   & Gibson, 2011).

 

Plan/Therapeutics

 

  • Plan:
    • Medication –

§ Terconazole cream 1 vaginal application QHS for 7 days for   Vulvovaginal Candidiasis;

§ Sulfamethoxazole/TMP DS 1 tablet PO twice daily for 3 days   for UTI (Woo & Wynne, 2012)

  • Education –

§ Medications prescribed.

§ UTI and Candidiasis symptoms, causes, risks, treatment,   prevention. Reasons to seek emergent care, including N/V, fever, or back   pain.

§ STD risks and preventions.

§ Ulcer prevention, including taking Protonix as prescribed,   not exceeding the recommended dose limit of NSAIDs, and not taking NSAIDs on   an empty stomach.

  • Follow-up         –

§ Pt will be contacted with results of STD studies.

§ Return to clinic when finished the period for perform   pap-smear or if symptoms do not resolve with prescribed TX.

 

References

Colgan, R. & Williams, M. (2011). Diagnosis and Treatment of Acute Uncomplicated Cystitis. American Family Physician, 84(7), 771-776.

Hainer, B. & Gibson, M. (2011). Vaginitis: Diagnosis and Treatment. American Family Physician, 83(7), 807-815.

Woo, T. M., & Wynne, A. L. (2012). Pharmacotherapeutics for Nurse Practitioner Prescribers (3rd ed.). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis Company.

2 sample Sample Regular Soap Note Template.docx

PATIENT INFORMATION

Name: Mr. W.S.

Age: 65-year-old

Sex: Male

Source: Patient

Allergies: None

Current Medications: Atorvastatin tab 20 mg, 1-tab PO at bedtime

PMH: Hypercholesterolemia

Immunizations: Influenza last 2018-year, tetanus, and hepatitis A and B 4 years ago.

Surgical History: Appendectomy 47 years ago.

Family History: Father- died 81 does not report information

Mother-alive, 88 years old, Diabetes Mellitus, HTN

Daughter-alive, 34 years old, healthy

Social Hx: No smoking history or illicit drug use, occasional alcoholic beverage consumption on social celebrations. Retired, widow, he lives alone.

SUBJECTIVE:

Chief complain: “headaches” that started two weeks ago

Symptom analysis/HPI:

The patient is 65 years old male who complaining of episodes of headaches and on 3 different occasions blood pressure was measured, which was high (159/100, 158/98 and 160/100 respectively). Patient noticed the problem started two weeks ago and sometimes it is accompanied by dizziness. He states that he has been under stress in his workplace for the last month.

Patient denies chest pain, palpitation, shortness of breath, nausea or vomiting.

ROS:

CONSTITUTIONAL: Denies fever or chills. Denies weakness or weight loss. NEUROLOGIC: Headache and dizzeness as describe above. Denies changes in LOC. Denies history of tremors or seizures.

HEENT: HEAD: Denies any head injury, or change in LOC. Eyes: Denies any changes in vision, diplopia or blurred vision. Ear: Denies pain in the ears. Denies loss of hearing or drainage. Nose: Denies nasal drainage, congestion. THROAT: Denies throat or neck pain, hoarseness, difficulty swallowing.

Respiratory: Patient denies shortness of breath, cough or hemoptysis.

Cardiovascular: No chest pain, tachycardia. No orthopnea or paroxysmal nocturnal

dyspnea.

Gastrointestinal: Denies abdominal pain or discomfort. Denies flatulence, nausea, vomiting or

diarrhea.

Genitourinary: Denies hematuria, dysuria or change in urinary frequency. Denies difficulty starting/stopping stream of urine or incontinence.

MUSCULOSKELETAL: Denies falls or pain. Denies hearing a clicking or snapping sound.

Skin: No change of coloration such as cyanosis or jaundice, no rashes or pruritus.

Objective Data

CONSTITUTIONAL: Vital signs: Temperature: 98.5 °F, Pulse: 87, BP: 159/92 mmhg, RR 20, PO2-98% on room air, Ht- 6’4”, Wt 200 lb, BMI 25. Report pain 0/10.

General appearance: The patient is alert and oriented x 3. No acute distress noted. NEUROLOGIC: Alert, CNII-XII grossly intact, oriented to person, place, and time. Sensation intact to bilateral upper and lower extremities. Bilateral UE/LE strength 5/5.

HEENT: Head: Normocephalic, atraumatic, symmetric, non-tender. Maxillary sinuses no tenderness. Eyes: No conjunctival injection, no icterus, visual acuity and extraocular eye movements intact. No nystagmus noted. Ears: Bilateral canals patent without erythema, edema, or exudate. Bilateral tympanic membranes intact, pearly gray with sharp cone of light. Maxillary sinuses no tenderness. Nasal mucosa moist without bleeding. Oral mucosa moist without lesions,.Lids non-remarkable and appropriate for race.

Neck: supple without cervical lymphadenopathy, no jugular vein distention, no thyroid swelling or masses.

Cardiovascular: S1S2, regular rate and rhythm, no murmur or gallop noted. Capillary refill < 2 sec.

Respiratory: No dyspnea or use of accessory muscles observed. No egophony, whispered pectoriloquy or tactile fremitus on palpation. Breath sounds presents and clear bilaterally on auscultation.

Gastrointestinal: No mass or hernia observed. Upon auscultation, bowel sounds present in all four quadrants, no bruits over renal and aorta arteries. Abdomen soft non-tender, no guarding, no rebound no distention or organomegaly noted on palpation

Musculoskeletal: No pain to palpation. Active and passive ROM within normal limits, no stiffness.

Integumentary: intact, no lesions or rashes, no cyanosis or jaundice.

Assessment

Essential (Primary) Hypertension (ICD10 I10): Given the symptoms and high blood pressure (156/92 mmhg), classified as stage 2. Once the organic cause of hypertension has been ruled out, such as renal, adrenal or thyroid, this diagnosis is confirmed.

Differential diagnosis:

Ø Renal artery stenosis (ICD10 I70.1)

Ø Chronic kidney disease (ICD10 I12.9)

Ø Hyperthyroidism (ICD10 E05.90)

Plan

Diagnosis is based on the clinical evaluation through history, physical examination, and routine laboratory tests to assess risk factors, reveal identifiable causes and detect target-organ damage, including evidence of cardiovascular disease.

These basic laboratory tests are:

· CMP

· Complete blood count

· Lipid profile

· Thyroid-stimulating hormone

· Urinalysis

· Electrocardiogram

Ø Pharmacological treatment: 

The treatment of choice in this case would be:

Thiazide-like diuretic and/or a CCB

· Hydrochlorothiazide tab 25 mg, Initial dose: 25 mg orally once daily.

Ø Non-Pharmacologic treatment:

· Weight loss

· Healthy diet (DASH dietary pattern): Diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and low-fat dairy products with reduced content of saturated and trans l fat

· Reduced intake of dietary sodium: <1,500 mg/d is optimal goal but at least 1,000 mg/d reduction in most adults

· Enhanced intake of dietary potassium

· Regular physical activity (Aerobic): 90–150 min/wk

· Tobacco cessation

· Measures to release stress and effective coping mechanisms.

Education

· Provide with nutrition/dietary information.

· Daily blood pressure monitoring at home twice a day for 7 days, keep a record, bring the record on the next visit with her PCP

· Instruction about medication intake compliance.

· Education of possible complications such as stroke, heart attack, and other problems.

· Patient was educated on course of hypertension, as well as warning signs and symptoms, which could indicate the need to attend the E.R/U.C. Answered all pt. questions/concerns. Pt verbalizes understanding to all

Follow-ups/Referrals

· Evaluation with PCP in 1 weeks for managing blood pressure and to evaluate current hypotensive therapy. Urgent Care visit prn.

· No referrals needed at this time.

References

Domino, F., Baldor, R., Golding, J., Stephens, M. (2017). The 5-Minute Clinical Consult 2017 (25th ed.). Print (The 5-Minute Consult Series).

Codina Leik, M. T. (2014). Family Nurse Practitioner Certification Intensive Review (2nd ed.). ISBN 978-0-8261-3424-0

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How does the community health nurse recognize bias

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

How does the community health nurse recognize bias, stereotypes, and implicit bias within the community?

It may be difficult for nurses to accept that they might be biased against any of their patients, however, it happens, and accepting it and then continually reassessing how they feel and how their approach works are the best approach to correcting implicit bias. A latent human tendency is an implicit bias that therefore interferes with best nursing practices. Recognizing an inherent bias implies recognizing that one might have certain emotions towards a particular population, the presence of an individual or community, or mannerisms that need to be discussed and dealt with in order to provide the best possible treatment.

How should the nurse address these concepts to ensure health promotion activities are culturally competent?

The following are some of the ways the nurses can address the concepts of bias, stereotypes, and implicit bias to ensure that health promotion activities are culturally competent;

  1. Noticing their assumptions-Anything from language differences to work status to regional inflections may lead individuals to conclude that a patient has certain attributes, attitudes, or values with which one might not agree. When trying to describe therapies to a patient, when listening to their wishes, or when working with an extended and active family, it is important to notice the assumptions that might be made.
  2. Knowing the patients- A good way to learn more about them is to speak with your patients. Understanding cultural differences will also assist one to become mindful of and begin to resolve any implicit bias.
  3. Talking about implicit bias in the work setting also opens the conversation, removes the taboo, and paves the way for better patient care and outcomes.
  4. Nurses should also understand the assumptions that trigger in them- A patient’s race, accent, clothing style, or appearance can spark an instant judgment in nurses, therefore, understanding this aspect will help recognize the bias.

Propose strategies that you can employ to reduce cultural dissonance and bias to deliver culturally competent care.

The following are some of the strategies that can be employed to eliminate cultural dissonance and bias to deliver culturally competent care;

  1. Acknowledgment- With acknowledgment comes to the acceptance of responsibility and accountability to make a difference. By facilitating reactions to promote supportive attitudes, such as empathy, nurses and other healthcare professionals must shift to suppress implicit bias.
  2. Advocacy- Nurses’ advocacy will help patients in the face of implicit bias to receive the individualized care they need. To serve the needs of patients, nurses must advocate for patients with tact, compassion, and professionalism, and connect and interact with other members of the healthcare team.
  3. Education- To raise awareness, acknowledge the presence of implicit bias, and reduce its prevalence, enhanced knowledge is essential. For healthcare professionals and nurses, education may be applied in standardized curricula.
  4. Personal awareness- This is the process of inward reflection to accept biases and ideals that can contribute to implicit bias. An internal compass that is used to direct everyday interactions needs gaining personal knowledge. In the face of the constant challenge of implicit bias, this compass will help nurses distinguish acceptable and inappropriate attitudes and actions and remain on the right path.

Using 200-300 APA format with references in supporting the discussion.  Propose strategies that you can employ to reduce cultural dissonance and bias to deliver culturally competent care. Include an evidence-based article that address the cultural issue

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Root cause analysis Fema paper|2025

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Task 2 Template

 

It is 3:30 p.m. on a Thursday and Mr. B, a 67-year-old patient, arrives at the six-room emergency department (ED) of a sixty-bed rural hospital. He has been brought to the hospital by his son and neighbor. At this time, Mr. B is moaning and complaining of severe pain to his (L) leg and hip area. He states he lost his balance and fell after tripping over his dog.

 

Mr. B was admitted to the triage room where his vital signs were B/P 120/80, HR-88 (regular), T-98.6, and R-32, and his weight was recorded at 175 pounds. Mr. B. states that he has no known allergies and no previous falls. He states, “My hip area and leg hurt really bad. I have never had anything like this before.” Patient rates pain at 10 out of 10 on the numerical verbal pain scale. He appears to be in moderate distress. His (L) leg appears shortened with swelling (edema in the calf), ecchymosis, and limited range of motion (ROM). Mr. B’s leg is stabilized and then is further evaluated and discharged from triage to the emergency department (ED) patient room. He is admitted by Nurse J. Nurse J finds that Mr. B has a history of impaired glucose tolerance and prostate cancer. At Mr. B’s last visit with his primary care physician, laboratory data revealed elevated cholesterol and lipids. Mr. B’s current medications are atorvastatin and oxycodone for chronic back pain. After Mr. B’s assessment is completed, Nurse J informs Dr. T, the ED physician, of admission findings, and Dr. T proceeds to examine Mr. B.

 

Staffing on this day consists of two nurses (one RN and one LPN), one secretary, and one emergency department physician. Respiratory therapy is in-house and available as needed. At the time of Mr. B’s arrival, the ED staff is caring for two other patients. One patient is a 43-year-old female complaining of a throbbing headache. The patient rates current pain at 4 out of 10 on numerical verbal pain scale. The patient states that she has a history of migraines. She received treatment, remains stable, and discharge is pending. The second patient is an eight-year-old boy being evaluated for possible appendicitis. Laboratory results are pending for this patient. Both of these patients were examined, evaluated, and cared for by Dr. T and are awaiting further treatment or orders.

 

After evaluation of Mr. B, Dr. T writes the order for Nurse J to administer diazepam 5 mg IVP to Mr. B. The medication diazepam is administered IVP at 4:05 p.m. After five minutes, the diazepam appears to have had no effect on Mr. B, and Dr. T instructs Nurse J to administer hydromorphone 2 mg IVP. The medication hydromorphone is administered IVP at 4:15 p.m. After five minutes, Dr. T is still not satisfied with the level of sedation Mr. B has achieved and instructs Nurse J to administer another 2 mg of hydromorphone IVP and an additional 5 mg of diazepam IVP. The physician’s goal is for the patient to achieve skeletal muscle relaxation from the diazepam, which will aid in the manual manipulation, relocation, and alignment of Mr. B’s hip. The hydromorphone IVP was administered to achieve pain control and sedation. After reviewing the patient’s medical history, Dr. T notes that the patient’s weight and current regular use of oxycodone appear to be making it more difficult to sedate Mr. B.

 

Finally, at 4:25 p.m., the patient appears to be sedated, and the successful reduction of his (L) hip takes place. The patient appears to have tolerated the procedure and remains sedated. He is not currently on any supplemental oxygen. The procedure concludes at 4:30 p.m.,and Mr. B is resting without indications of discomfort and distress. At this time, the ED receives an emergency dispatch call alerting the emergency department that the emergency rescue unit paramedics are enroute with a 75-year-old patient in acute respiratory distress. Nurse J places Mr. B on an automatic blood pressure machine programmed to monitor his B/P every five minutes and a pulse oximeter. At this time, Nurse J leaves Mr. B’s room. The nurse allows Mr. B’s son to sit with him as he is being monitored via the blood pressure monitor. At 4:35 p.m., Mr. B’s B/P is 110/62 and his O2 saturation is 92%. He remains without supplemental oxygen and his ECG and respirations are not monitored.

 

Nurse J and the LPN on duty have received the emergency transport patient. They are also in the process of discharging the other two patients. Meanwhile, the ED lobby has become congested with new incoming patients. At this time, Mr. B’s O2 saturation alarm is heard and shows “low O2 saturation” (currently showing a saturation of 85%). The LPN enters Mr. B’s room briefly, resets the alarm, and repeats the B/P reading.

 

Nurse J is now fully engaged with the emergency care of the respiratory distress patient, which includes assessments, evaluation, and the ordering of respiratory treatments, CXR, labs, etc.

 

At 4:43 p.m., Mr. B’s son comes out of the room and informs the nurse that the “monitor is alarming.” When Nurse J enters the room, the blood pressure machine shows Mr. B’s B/P reading is 58/30 and the O2 saturation is 79%. The patient is not breathing and no palpable pulse can be detected.

 

A STAT CODE is called and the son is escorted to the waiting room. The code team arrives and begins resuscitative efforts. When connected to the cardiac monitor, Mr. B is found to be in ventricular fibrillation. CPR begins immediately by the RN, and Mr. B is intubated. He is defibrillated and reversal agents, IV fluids, and vasopressors are administered. After 30 minutes of interventions, the ECG returns to a normal sinus rhythm with a pulse and a B/P of 110/70. The patient is not breathing on his own and is fully dependent on the ventilator. The patient’s pupils are fixed and dilated. He has no spontaneous movements and does not respond to noxious stimuli. Air transport is called, and upon the family’s wishes, the patient is transferred to a tertiary facility for advanced care.

 

Seven days later, the receiving hospital informed the rural hospital that EEG’s had determined brain death in Mr. B. The family had requested life-support be removed, and Mr. B subsequently died.

 

Additional information: The hospital where Mr. B. was originally seen and treated had a moderate sedation/analgesia (“conscious sedation”) policy that requires that the patient remains on continuous B/P, ECG, and pulse oximeter throughout the procedure and until the patient meets specific discharge criteria (i.e., fully awake, VSS, no N/V, and able to void). All practitioners who perform moderate sedation must first successfully complete the hospital’s moderate sedation training module. The training module includes drug selection as well as acceptable dose ranges. Additional (backup) staff was available on the day of the incident. Nurse J had completed the moderate sedation module. Nurse J had current ACLS certification and was an experienced critical care nurse. Nurse J’s prior annual clinical evaluations by the manager demonstrated that the nurse was “meeting requirements.” Nurse J did not have a history of negligent patient care. Sufficient equipment was available and in working order in the ED on this day.

 

A. Explain the general purpose of conducting a root cause analysis (RCA).

1. Explain each of the six steps used to conduct an RCA, as defined by IHI.

2. Apply the RCA process to the scenario to describe the causative and contributing factors that led to the sentinel event outcome.

 

A & A1 responses provide general information, and do not relate to the scenario. Describe in your own words. A numbered list can be used for A1.

For A2 apply Steps 1-4 of the RCA process to the scenario being sure to conclude with the causative and contributing factors.

 

Step 1: Identify what happened. The team must try to describe what happened accurately and completely. To organize and further clarify information about the event, some teams create a flowchart, a simple tool that allows you to draw a picture of what happened in the order it occurred.

Step 2: Determine what should have happened. The team has to determine what would have happened in ideal conditions. It can be useful to create a flow chart based on this information and compare it to the chart from Step 1.

Step 3: Determine causes (“Ask why five times”). This is where the team determines the factors that contributed to the event. Teams look at direct causes (most apparent) and contributory factors (indirect in nature) during this process. Some experts recommend that RCA teams “ask why five times” to get at an underlying or root cause. The IHI Open School provides online courses in quality improvement, patient safety, leadership, patient- and family-centered care, managing health care operations, and population health. These courses are free for students, residents, and professors of all health professions, and available by subscription to health professionals. One useful tool for identifying factors and grouping them is a fishbone diagram (also known as an “Ishikawa” or “cause and effect” diagram), a graphic tool used to explore and display the possible causes of a certain effect. Seven different factors influence clinical practice and medical error: patient characteristics, task factors, individual staff member, team factors, work environment, organizational and management factors, institutional context.

Step 4: Develop causal statements. A causal statement links the cause (identified in Step 3) to its effects and then back to the main event that prompted the RCA in the first place. By creating causal statements, we explain how the contributory factors – which are basically a set of facts about current conditions – contribute to bad outcomes for patients and staff. A causal statement has three parts: the cause (“This happened …”), the effect (“ … which led to something else happening …”), and the event (“ … which caused this undesirable outcome”).

Step 5: Generate a list of recommended actions to prevent the recurrence of the event. Recommended actions are changes that the RCA team thinks will help prevent the error under review from occurring in the future. Recommendations often fall into one of these categories: i. Standardizing equipment ii. Ensuring redundancy, such as using double checks or backup systems iii. Using forcing functions that physically prevent users from making common mistakes iv. Changing the physical plant v. Updating or improving software vi. Using cognitive aids, such as checklists, labels, or mnemonic devices vii. Simplifying a process viii. Educating staff ix. Developing new policies Some actions are more effective than others at dealing with the root causes of error. The National Center for Patient Safety defines strong, intermediate, and weak actions: i. A strong action is likely to eliminate or greatly reduce the likelihood of an event. ii. An intermediate action is likely to control the root cause or vulnerability. iii. A weak action by itself is less likely to be effective.

Step 6: Write a summary and share it. This can be an opportunity to engage the key players to help drive the next steps in improvement. To organize and further clarify information about the event, some teams create a flowchart, simple tool that allows you to draw a picture of what happened in the order it occurred.

 

 

 

Model for improvement:

 

1. Set an aim. A general statement — something like, “We will improve our infection rate” — isn’t good enough. The aim statement should be time-specific and measurable, stating exactly: “How good?” “By when?” and “For whom?”

 

2. Establish measures. You need feedback to know if a specific change actually leads to an improvement, and quantitative measures can often provide the best feedback.

 

3. Identify changes. So, how are you going to achieve your aim? Where do new ideas come from? You can spark creative thinking in various ways, and there are tools that can help.

 

4. Test changes. This is where the PDSA cycle portion of the Model for Improvement comes in. By planning a test of change, trying the plan, observing the results, and acting on what you learn, you will progressively move toward your aim. Measurement is an essential part of testing changes with PDSA (Plan-Do-Study-Act): It tells you if the changes you are testing are leading to improvement.

 

 

5. Implement changes. After you have a change that results in improvement under many conditions, the logical next step is to implement it — meaning, make the change the new standard process in one defined setting

 

 

B. Propose a process improvement plan that would decrease the likelihood of a reoccurrence of the scenario outcome.

1. Discuss how each phase of Lewin’s change theory on the human side of change could be applied to the proposed improvement plan.

 

The improvement Plan (IP) needs to address the factors you identified in A2. IHI refers to this as an “action plan”. Describe the changes you would implement in the ED to prevent recurrence.

Describe the 3 stages of the theory, and show how you would apply Lewin’s strategies to the implementation of your IP from B. Provide at least one strategy specific to your plan for each stage to help staff accept new IP.

 

 

3 Stages to Lewin’s change theory:

 

1. Unfreezing

 

From Lewin’s perspective, the first stage in helping people adapt to change involves unfreezing or loosening their attachment to their current attitude or practice. That means helping them understand why change is necessary and clarifying how the change will be accomplished. When implementing a change in health care, this stage might include communicating with staff and sharing external research or internal data about the change. It may also focus on training or the distribution of resources that will help people understand the need for the change.

 

2. Change

In the second stage, the process of change actually occurs. This may be a difficult time for individuals affected by the change. These people will need lots of support as questions and frustrations arise. 3. Freezing

 

Once the changes occur or something has transitioned to a new way of being, Lewin identifies a need to actively “re-freeze” the process in its new state, so that it can continue to operate as designed. This ensures that people will not naturally return to the old way of doing things. This re-freezing may involve new protocols and procedures, periodic process checks to learn how the new process is working in relation to its design, and reinforcement through internal communications and other formats that remind people of the new process.

 

 

 

C. Explain the general purpose of the failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) process.

1. Describe the steps of the FMEA process as defined by IHI.

2. Complete the attached FMEA table by appropriately applying the scales of severity, occurrence, and detection to the process improvement plan proposed in part B. 

 

Note: You are not expected to carry out the full FMEA.

 

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is a systematic, proactive method for evaluating a process to identify where and how it might fail and to assess the relative impact of different failures, in order to identify the parts of the process that are most in need of change. FMEA includes review of the following:

· Steps in the process

· Failure modes (What could go wrong?)

· Failure causes (Why would the failure happen?)

· Failure effects (What would be the consequences of each failure?)

Teams use FMEA to evaluate processes for possible failures and to prevent them by correcting the processes proactively rather than reacting to adverse events after failures have occurred. This emphasis on prevention may reduce risk of harm to both patients and staff. FMEA is particularly useful in evaluating a new process prior to implementation and in assessing the impact of a proposed change to an existing process.

 

 

 

Steps in FMEA process:

1) Select a process to evaluate with FMEA. Evaluation using FMEA works best on processes that do not have too many sub-processes. If you’re hoping to evaluate a large and complex process, such as medication management in a hospital, divide it up. For example, do separate FMEAs on medication ordering, dispensing, and administration processes.

2) Recruit a multidisciplinary team. Be sure to include everyone who is involved at any point in the process. Some people may not need to be part of the team throughout the entire analysis, but they should certainly be included in discussions of those steps in the process in which they are involved. For example, a hospital may utilize couriers to transport medications from the pharmacy to nursing units. It would be important to include the couriers in the FMEA of the steps that occur during the transport itself, which may not be known to personnel in the pharmacy or on the nursing unit.

3) Have the team list all of the steps in the process. Working with a team that represents every point in the process you’re evaluating, establish a mutually agreed upon, ordered list of all the steps in the process.

4) Fill out the table with your team

5) Use RPNs to plan improvement efforts. Failure modes with high RPNs are probably the most important parts of the process on which to focus improvement efforts. Failure modes with low RPNs are not likely to affect the overall process much, even if eliminated completely, and they should therefore be at the bottom of the list of priorities. Identify the failure modes with the top 10 highest RPNs. These are the ones the team should consider first as improvement opportunities.

 

For the Table:

In the left-most column, input the numbered list of the steps in the process. Then, working with the members of the team who are involved in specific steps, fill out the remaining columns as follows:

o Failure Mode [What could go wrong?]: List anything that could go wrong during that step in the process.

o Failure Causes [Why would the failure happen?]: List all possible causes for each of the failure modes you’ve identified.

o Failure Effects [What would be the consequences of the failure?]: List all possible adverse consequences for each of the failure modes identified.

o Likelihood of Occurrence (1–10): On a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the most likely, what is the likelihood the failure mode will occur? o Likelihood of Detection (1-10): On a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the most likely NOT to be detected, what is the likelihood the failure will NOT be detected if it does occur?

o Severity (1-10): On a scale of 1-10, with 10 being the most likely, what is the likelihood that the failure mode, if it does occur, will cause severe harm?

o Risk Profile Number (RPN): For each failure mode, multiply together the three scores the team identified (i.e., likelihood of occurrence x likelihood of detection x severity). The lowest possible score will be 1 and the highest 1,000. To calculate the RPN for the entire process, simply add up all of the individual RPNs for each failure mode.

o Actions to Reduce Occurrence of Failure: List possible actions to improve safety systems, especially for failure modes with the highest RPNs. a) Tip: Teams can use FMEA to analyze each action under consideration. Calculate how the RPN would change if you introduced different changes to the system.

 

 

C – Describe in your own words C1 – There are 5 steps in the FMEA process according to IHI; completing the FMEA table is Step 4. A numbered list can be used. Describe in your own words.

The content to apply to the FMEA table is your Improvement Plan from B, and NOT the original Scenario errors. Your objective is to describe your plan in 4 steps in Column 1; next hypothesize a fail for each step in Column 2. You apply the scales/scoring to each fail. Then calculate the RPN for each row.

See Steps 3 & 4 of FMEA process.

 

 

 

 

 

D. Explain how you would test the interventions from the process improvement plan from part B to improve care.

Propose a specific initial evaluation plan, or pilot to evaluate/monitor whether your plan would work as you expect before full implementation. What data could you collect; what activities will you monitor during the pilot.

 

 

E. Explain how a professional nurse can competently demonstrate leadership in each of the following areas:

• promoting quality care

• improving patient outcomes

• influencing quality improvement activities

1. Discuss how the involvement of the professional nurse in the RCA and FMEA processes demonstrates leadership qualities.

 

E – The focus is on leadership activities here. Provide an activity or way the BSN RN can demonstrate leadership for each bullet-point. You can share from your professional experience or organizational opportunities.

For E1 – what leadership qualities does the BSN RN bring to the RCA/FMEA team as compared to the MD or LPN for example.

 

Citations for IHI:

 

RCA Process:

Institute for Healthcare Improvement. (2019). Patient Safety 104: Root Cause and Systems Analysis Summary Sheet. Retrieved from http://www.ihi.org/education/ihiopenschool/Courses/Documents/SummaryDocuments/PS%20104%20SummaryFINAL.pdf

 

Model for Improvement:

Institute for Healthcare Improvement. (2019). Quality Improvement 102: The Model for Improvement: Your Engine for Change Summary Sheet. Retrieved from http://www.ihi.org/education/ihiopenschool/Courses/Documents/QI102-FinalOnePager.pdf

 

Lewin’s Change Theory:

Williams, D. (2019). QI 201: Planning for Spread: From Local Improvements to System-Wide Change. Retrieved from http://app.ihi.org/lmsspa/#/6cb1c614-884b-43ef-9abd-d90849f183d4/ea07c796-a771-4713-8bd8-520188b6c793/lessonDetail/2adf747a-862f-4862-ab0c-561318f05b67/page/1

 

FMEA and Table:

Institute for Healthcare Improvement. (2017). QI Essentials Toolkit: Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA). Retrieved from http://www.ihi.org/resources/pages/tools/FailureModesandEffectsAnalysisTool.aspx

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The nurse’s role and responsibility as health educator|2025

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

2 postsRe: Topic 1 DQ 1

Patient education is a significant responsibility for all nurses. A patient should be educated from the moment of admission to the date of discharge. There are always opportunities for nurses to teach patients and enforce teaching. According to Whitney, the first process of being health educator and teaching is patient assessment (2018). Patient assessment is necessary because each patient has different learning style, education level, values, and belief system. Nurses are also responsible to assess for any barriers in learning. Some of these barriers include culture, health disparities, environment, language, literary, and physiological barriers (Whitney, 2018). Patients need to be educated to make informed decisions, manage their health, prevent illness, and promote health. Nurses collaborate with an interdisciplinary team to develop a teaching plan tailored to a patient.

Nurse educator may collaborate with an interdisciplinary team to develop a tailored individual care plan. It is important for nurses to find out what is important to their patient and what motivated them to make the teaching more effective (Smith & Zsohar, 2013). This will be different for every patient because each patient has a different motivator and readiness to learn. Nurses should utilize the teach back method to demonstrate effective teaching. When developing educational programs in health promotion it is important for nurses to focus on a specific target group that share the same values and goals. It is important to determine the literacy level and any other barriers to learning. Providing various resources such as video, written, and audio material is essential for teaching and evaluating the patient’s knowledge in teaching.

Behavioral objectives should be utilized in a patient’s care plan when the patient is willing to learn and change. Before a nurse can utilize the behavioral objective, they need to determine the patient’s readiness to change and create on objective for the patient’s stage (Whitney, 2018). There are six stages of change. Nurses play a crucial role in patient education and are key players in improving patient health and wellness.

References

Smith, J. A., & Zsohar, H. (2013). Patient-education tips for new nurses. Nursing, 43(10), 1-3. doi:10.1097/01.nurse.0000434224.51627.8a

Whitney, S. (2018). Teaching and Learning Styles. In Health Promotion: Health & Wellness Across the Continuum. Grand Canyon University.

Respond to the above student’s posting using 200 to 250 words APA format supporting with one or two references in discussions.

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Strategies for Academic Portfolios

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

In the realm of marketing, a successful branding strategy is one of the most important contributors to organizational success. A solid branding strategy can help add visibility and credibility to a company’s products.

Similarly, nurse-scholars can build a personal brand to add visibility and credibility to their work. You can begin building your brand by developing and maintaining an academic portfolio. Such an activity can help share the results of your efforts and contribute to your success. This Module’s Discussion asks you to consider and share strategies for building your portfolio.

To Prepare:

  • Reflect on strategies that you can pursue in developing portfolios or portfolio elements that focus on academic achievements.
  • Review one or more samples from your own research of resources focused on portfolio development.

By Day 3 of Week 8

Post an explanation of at least two strategies for including academic activities and accomplishments into your professional development goals. Then, explain how those goals may align with the University’s emphasis on social change. Be specific and provide examples.

By Day 6 of Week 8

Respond to at least two of your colleagues’ posts by offering additional ideas regarding academic achievements to include or offering alternative ways of presenting the current achievements.

APA 7 formatting at least 3 references including DOI number,  and two paragraphs each.

Discussion for reply one (Eliz)

Week 8 Main Discussion Post

Besides the day to day bustle of nursing life, it is important to have vision of future plans.  These plans, when clearly laid out, create a map to success.  Achieving the “stops” on the way along the map to success, are opportunities for growth that, when accomplished, should be added to our portfolio.  This portfolio will be used to help leverage our position among other qualified individuals and set us apart when vying for employment opportunities, as well as help us excel in our practice.

Along with advancing my education in this program, one of the ways I have contributed to my academic portfolio is by becoming certified in my area of nursing practice.  Certified nurses have shown to be a benefit to patients, their families, and employers (Certification Benefits Patients, Employers and Nurses, n.d.).  By achieving certified status, it has been shown that certified nurses make decisions with more confidence and gain more satisfaction in their profession (Certification Benefits Patients, Employers and Nurses, n.d.).  I have to agree with these statements as I have seen a tremendous benefit in my practice since achieving certification, as well as a respect from colleagues that I hadn’t been as aware of previously.

Another strategy that I plan to add to my portfolio is working with nursing education on RN competencies.  I have had the opportunity to participate in annual nursing competencies at my facility on mechanical circulatory support, since I am the content expert for the facility.  I really enjoy teaching and find that I am also able to learn more myself by coming up with new and innovative ways to present the material.  Focusing on continuing education and becoming an expert has been shown to expand professional development in nursing exponentially (Sadler, 2018).  Although teaching is not ultimately what I want to do, it is nice to have the opportunity to participate and contribute to the continuing education of my colleagues.

Walden University’s vision of social change is to change practice on a global scale (Social Change, 2020).  I believe both of these initiatives will help contribute to this mission as they will allow for the advancement of practice in nursing.  Having an advanced certification and sharing that knowledge with colleagues can only benefit patient care and increase outcomes in the long run.  I look forward to being able to continue to contribute to this change by obtaining my advanced degree and being able to expand my scope of practice as well.

References

Certification benefits patients, employers and nurses. (n.d.). American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Retrieved October 1, 2020, from https://www.aacn.org/certification/value-of-certification-resource-center/nurse-certification-benefits-patients-employers-and-nurses#:~:text=By%20becoming%20certified%2C%20nurses%20validate,licensure%20measures%20entry%2Dlevel%20competence.

Sadler, F. (2018, September 14). 3 critical components of nursing professional development across the care continuum. RELIAS. Retrieved October 1, 2020, from https://www.relias.com/blog/3-components-of-professional-development-for-nurses

Social change. (2020). Walden University. Retrieved October 1, 2020, from https://www.waldenu.edu/about/social-change

Discussion for reply 2 ( kasmika)

I look forward to becoming my own boss in nursing entrepreneurship. A strategy for my portfolio is to gain skills and network with entrepreneurs by attending their specific training workshops. This will be a great way to a meet with those who have already mastered nursing entrepreneurship. There I can gain knowledge and also certificates in the wellness industry. Learning about new and more effective ways to accomplish things and gaining more knowledge about business subjects and concepts are all benefits of attending professional development workshops (Stambaugh & Anderson, 2017).

Another strategy to add to my portfolio would be to volunteer and community involvement. I am usually the first to sign up for community service projects because it teaches compassion and understanding for those who are in need. Additionally, community service volunteering can also be the avenue to explore areas that you express interest (Henry, 2017). I am passionate about spreading wellness in my community so volunteering with likeminded professionals would aid in teaching me successful habits.

As a registered nurse I have always set goals to achieve so that I don’t remain stagnant in my profession. From a very young age my dream has always been set on combining nursing and entrepreneurship. I was not surrounded by many nurse entrepreneurs, so I sought to change the narrative. Walden University defines positive social change as a deliberate process of creating and applying ideas, strategies, and actions to promote the worth, dignity, and development of individuals, communities, organizations, institutions, cultures, and societies (n.d.). This aligns with my goals as my perfect portfolio would portray them along with the accomplishments I’ve attained while pursuing my dreams.

 

References

Stambaugh, C., & Anderson, D. (2017, November 10). The Benefits of Attending Professional Development Events. https://www.mycpid.com/benefits-attending-professional-development-workshops/.

Henry, J. (2017, April 7). Why is Community Service Important?

https://www.21stcenturyleaders.org/why-is-community-service-important/.

Walden University Catalog. (n.d.). Social Change.

https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=41&navoid=5182

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Culture class module 2 assignment Family traditions

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Familial Health Traditions

Instructions: 

  1. Read and follow the directions on pages 160 and 161.
  2. Conduct an interview with an older family member.
  3. Summarize your findings regarding familial and social changes, and your ethnocultural and religiousheritage. (Include one example)
  4. Your paper should be:
    • One (1) page
    • Typed according to APA style for margins, formating and spacing standards
      • See NUR3045 – Library (located on left-side on menu) for tutorial Using APA Style
    • Typed into a Microsoft Word document, save the file, and then upload the file.
    • I ATTACHED THE PDF OF THE BOOK SO YOU CAN LOOK AT PAGE 160 AND 161 WHCIH IS PART OF CHAPTER 7

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NURS 6541 Midterm Exam / NURS6541 Midterm Exam

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

 

NURS 6541 Midterm Exam / NURS6541 Midterm Exam   (Latest): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University

 

· Question 1

 

 

When completing this   quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the   expectations for academic integrity?

 

· Question 2

 

Miguel, age 14, was hit in   the eye with a baseball and developed eye pain, decreased visual acuity, and   injection of the globe. Upon exam you note blood in the anterior chamber and   confirm diagnosis of hyphema. What treatment do you recommend while Miguel is   waiting to see the ophthalmologist

 

· Question 3

 

The father of a   3-year-old is concerned because the child stutters. What should your approach   be?

 

· Question 4

 

A 2-day-old   newbornwith conjunctivitis is likely due to

 

· Question 5

 

You see a 13-year-old who   reports she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability   to successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget   developmental stage?

 

· Question 6

 

For adolescent   girls, peak height velocity should occur by Tanner Stage (SMR):

 

· Question 7

 

Which is the correct   order for introduction of solid foods to an infant?

 

· Question 8

 

I can walk well on tiptoes,   my speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I cannot balance   on one foot for 1 second. I am:

 

· Question 9

 

You receive a phone call from   the mother of a 2-year-old. She states her child has sleep refusal. You   suggest the child should be able to:

 

· Question 10

 

A   15-month-old  boy says “mama” and “dada,” points and gestures if he   wants things, and follows simple one-step commands. Your best response is   which of the following?

 

· Question 11

 

At what age would a child   be expected to remember a string of numbers and repeat them backwards?

 

· Question 12

 

A 13-month-old child is noted   to be at the 25th percentile for weight, the 10th percentile for height, and   less than the 5th percentile for head circumference. She was   born at term. She was noted to have a small head at birth, to be   developmentally delayed throughout her life, and to have required cataract   surgery shortly after birth. She currently takes phenobarbital for seizures.   Which of the following would most likely explain this child’s small size?

 

· Question 13

 

A child’s head   circumference is routinely measured on each well visit until what age?

 

· Question 14

 

A 14-year-old female comes   into the office for an urgent visit after taking 10 valium tablets.    Following the initial emergent care and stailization, the most important part   of the management is:

 

· Question 15

 

All of the   following are consistent with peritonsillar abscess except:

 

b.

Trismus

· Question 16

 

Which of the   following complication of strep pharyngitis cannot be prevented with   antibiotics?

 

b.

Glomerulonephritis

· Question 17

 

A 4-year-old   believes there is more juice in a tall, thin glass than a shorter, wider one.   The child has not yet achieved which of the principles of Piaget?

 

b.

Conservation

· Question 18

 

Josh, age 13, has   some enlargement of the scrotum and testes, a reddened scrotal sac, and some   hair texture alteration. His penis is not enlarged. He is in Tanner stage

 

d.

II

· Question 19

 

A breastfed infant   is expected to have a lower incidence of which of the following?

 

e.

Diarrhea

· Question 20

 

A 12-year-old male   states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling   him about the next step in pubertal development, you state:

 

d.

The penis will grow in length and width.

· Question 21

 

You see a 7-year-old   with complaints of “having accidents at night.” Physical exam and   history are unremarkable. Urinalysis, urine culture, and specific gravity are   normal. His parents ask about the best treatment for this problem. The best   response is

 

a.

Fluid restriction and voiding prior to the night may be effective.

· Question 22

 

Chelsea, age 8,   complains that she feels as if something is stuck in her ear. What action is   contraindicated?

 

c.

Flushing the ear with water.

· Question 23

 

By what age should most   children be able to sit well without support?

 

a.

9 months

· Question 24

 

A typically   developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital   development?

 

a.

No pubic hair at all

· Question 25

 

John is diagnosed   with allergic conjunctivitis. What type of discharge do you expect to see   upon exam?

 

c.

Serous and clear

· Question 26

 

Which of the following   vaccines is routinely recommended at 4 months of age?

 

a.

Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP)

· Question 27

 

An 8-year-old female   has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for 2 days with a   fever of 102.9 (F). Which important eye assessment do you need to consider?

 

d.

Ocular mobility

· Question 28

 

Role-play with equipment during the course of the physical exam   would be the most beneficial with which age group?

 

b.

Preschoolers

· Question 29

 

Conductive hearing   loss can be caused by

 

c.

Serous otitis

· Question 30

 

You see a 30-month-old who   speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at   the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the   child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two   languages. You respond:

 

d.

“Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly     intermix the words from both languages until about 3 years of age.”

· Question 31

 

Mark is in the exam   room. You are concerned he may have epiglottitis. In what position do these   patients prefer to sit?

 

d.

Sitting up and leaning forward

· Question 32

 

The mother of a   4-year-old tells you he likes to “play with himself” while playing   and watching television. You advise the mother to

 

a.

Explain to the child that masturbation is something that should be     done in private.

· Question 33

 

Parents bring their   6-month-old son to see you. He is symmetrically less than the 5th   percentile for height, weight and head circumference. He was born at 30   weeks’ gestation and weighed 1000g. He was a planned pregnancy, and his   mother’s prenatal course was uneventful until an automobile accident   initiated the labor. He was ventilated for 3 days in the intensive care unit   but otherwise did well without ongoing problems. He was discharged at 8 weeks   of life. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his small   size?

 

e.

Normal ex-preemie infant growth

· Question 34

 

You assess a   15-year-old’s visual acuity and note her vision to be 20/50 in the right eye.   She asks you what that means and you respond

 

d.

“You can see at 20 feet with your right eye what most people can     see at 50 feet.”

· Question 35

 

During a “well-child” visit,   the parents of a healthy 5-month-old offer a great amount of information.   Which of the following bits of information is of most concern?

 

a.

Limited eye contact with parents.

· Question 36

 

You are performing   an examination of a 3-year-old who is new to your office. Which finding   requires immediate further evaluation?

 

d.

Heart rate     increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration

· Question 37

 

A 9-year-old who   weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat of the   family car. Your best response is

 

c.

The safest place for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is in     the backseat of the car.

· Question 38

 

Which of the   following would not suggest an eating disorder with a   purging component?

 

d.

Finger calluses

· Question 39

 

A fifteen-year-old   female makes a statement to you during a well visit. Which of the following   statements should not be kept confidential?

 

b.

“Sometimes I feel like ending my life.”

· Question 40

 

Sarah, age 15,   presents with pain and pressure over her cheeks and discolored nasal   discharge. You cannot transilluminate the sinuses. You suspect which common   sinus to be affected?

 

d.

Maxillary sinus

· Question 41

 

A 6-month-old infant has been   growing poorly. His parents have changed his formula three times without   success. His examination is remarkable for a pale, emaciated child with   little subcutaneous fat and anterior fontanelle fullness. His laboratory test   results are notable for a hemolytic anemia and prolonged bleeding times.   Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

 

d.

Obtain a sweat chloride concentration

· Question 42

 

Medicaid provides   health insurance coverage to

 

a.

Certain categories of people whose personal income falls below a     certain percentage of the federal poverty level.

· Question 43

 

The mother of a   5-year-old informs you that her daughter cheats when playing board games.   What is the best response?

 

b.

Tell the mother to spend time clarifying board game rules before     starting games.

· Question 44

 

Which of the   following substances is associated with pupillary constriction?

 

b.

Heroin

· Question 45

 

A 7-year-old has just been   diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Her parents   report that she is doing poorly in school and is disruptive in the classroom.   They ask you what they can do. Your best response is:

 

a.

“Use a consistent approach with behavioral cues both at home and     at school.”

· Question 46

 

Flourescein staining   of the eye is used to detect a

 

c.

Corneal abrasion

· Question 47

0 out of 1 points

 

Luke, a 17-month-old, failed   treatment with amoxicillin for otitis media. At the two-week recheck, his TM   was still erythematous and you cannot see the landmarks. He has persistent   nasal congestion, he is not sleeping at night, and he has a 101°F fever. What   is the next best step for Luke?

 

a.

Ceftriaxone and an antihistamine

· Question 48

 

All of the   following may predispose a patient to thrush except:

 

c.

Poor oral hygiene

· Question 49

 

Head and chest   circumferences should be equal at:

 

c.

1 year of age

· Question 50

 

The diagnostic   criteria for autism spectrum disorder include all of the following except

 

c.

Tolerance of flexibility with routines

· Question 51

 

Which of the   following statements about bullying is true?

 

b.

It occurs most commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess,     etc.).

· Question 52

 

The most likely   weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6-1/2 pounds would be:

 

a.

19 to 20 pounds

· Question 53

 

An eye that deviates   in when covered but that returns to midline when uncovered is an

 

c.

esophoria

· Question 54

 

A 7-year-old boy with mental   retardation was born at home at 26 weeks gestation to a 28-year-old mother   who had received no prenatal care. An evaluation is likely to suggest his MR   is related to which of the following?

 

e.

Complications of prematurity

· Question 55

 

The most common   substance used in middle school is

 

a.

Alcohol

· Question 56

 

A 2-day-old infant has   significant nasal and rectal bleeding. He was delivered by a midwife at home;   the pregnancy was without complications. His Apgar scores were 9 at 1 minute   and 9 at 5 minutes. He has breastfed well and has not required a health care   professional visit since birth. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies   might explain his condition?

 

a.

Vitamin K

· Question 57

 

Tammy, age 3, is at   the office for her well-child visit. She has trouble removing her own shirt   as requested. Her mother yanks off her shirt after smacking her wrist and   saying, “you must do as you’re told quickly.” Which action is   indicated?

 

d.

Observe Tammy for signs of child abuse.

· Question 58

 

A 4-month-old child has poor   weight gain. Her current weight is less than the 5th percentile, height about   the 10th percentile, and head circumference at the 50th percentile. The   planned pregnancy resulted in a normal, spontaneous, vaginal delivery; mother   and child were discharged after a 48-hour hospitalization. Feeding is via   breast and bottle; the quantity seems sufficient. The child has had no   illness. The examination is unremarkable except for the child’s small size.   Screening laboratory shows the hemoglobin and hematocrit are 11 mg/dL and 33%   respectively, with a platelet count of 198,000/mm3. Serum electrolyte levels   are sodium 140, chloride 105, potassium 3.5, bicarbonate 17, blood urea   nitrogen 15, and creatinine 0.3. Liver function tests are normal. Urinalysis   reveals a pH of 8 with occasional epithelial cells but no white blood cells,   bacteria, protein, ketones, or reducing substances. Which of the following is   the most appropriate therapy for this child?

 

d.

Oral supplementation with bicarbonate

· Question 59

 

A teenage female who   is overweight has moderate acne on the face and chest, and irregular menses.   Elevation of which laboratory test provides the test evidence of polycystic   ovarian syndrome?

 

a.

free testosterone

· Question 60

 

A 2-year-old boy has been   slightly less than the 50th percentile for weight, height and head   circumference, but in the last 6 months he has fallen to slightly less than   the 25th percentile for weight. The pregnancy was normal, his development is   as expected, and the family reports no psychosocial problems. The mother says   that he is now a finicky eater (wants only macaroni and cheese at all meals),   but she insists that he eat a variety of foods. The meals are marked by much   frustration for everyone. His examination is normal. Which of the following   is the best next step in his care?

 

c.

Reassurance and counseling for family about childhood normal     developmental stage

· Question 61

 

I like to use my pincer grasp that involves the ablitily to pick   up a small object such as a raisin or piece of cereal with the thumb and   forefinger, and that is mastered around what age?

 

b.

9 months

· Question 62

 

An 11-year-old girl   has dizziness, pupillary dilation, nausea, fever, techycardia, and facial   flushing. She says she can “see” sound and “hear” colors.   The agent likely to be responsible is which of the following?

 

d.

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

· Question 63

 

An 8-year-old female is   brought into the office by her mother. She has complaints of fever and sore   throat for the past 2 days. She denies difficulty swallowing but has loss of   appetite and mild diarrhea. A few classmates have similar symptoms. A review of   systems reveals clear nasal drainage, dry cough, and hoarseness. On exam she   has a 101.5 temperature, 3+ erythematous tonsils, and anterior cervical   lymphadenopathy. What is the likely diagnosis?

 

c.

Viral pharyngitis

· Question 64

 

Appropriate advice for a   mother of a 2-week-old child here for a “well child” visit includes which of   the following?

 

c.

Sleep in the supine position is recommended

· Question 65

0 out of 1 points

 

What is the most   traumatic, yet common form and of child abuse seen in pediatric primary care?

 

d.

Soft tissue injuries

· Question 66

 

Which of the   following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and   adolescents to have healthy sexual development?

 

a.

Begin anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal     development in the early school-age visits.

· Question 67

 

Appropriate   anticipatory guidance for the parents of an 8-year-old girl includes

 

c.

Information that the child will start to value personal idols and role     models.

· Question 68

 

Max, a 9-year-old   boy, is a very active child with limited self-control. He is easily   distracted and has difficulty staying on task. You determine that he should   have a neurodevelopmental evaluation because he is showing signs of

 

d.

ADHD

· Question 69

 

Which of the   following injuries is most likely to be caused by abuse of a toddler?

 

c.

A displaced posterior rib fracture.

· Question 70

 

Which of the   following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child?

 

a.

Erikson’s initiative versus guilt

· Question 71

 

While assessing the   skin of an infant, you note cafe-au-lait spots. Which disease should be ruled   out?

 

c.

Neurofibromatosis

· Question 72

 

The first sign of   the onset of female puberty is usually:

 

d.

Breast buds

· Question 73

 

A mother states that   her 4-year-old son constantly grinds his teeth at night. You document this   as:

 

d.

Bruxism

· Question 74

 

Which of the   following characterizes middle adolescence (14 to 16 years old)?

 

c.

Intense peer     group involvement, feelings of immortality, sexual experimentation

· Question 75

 

I can roll over, grasp a   rattle, and reach for things and have begun feeding myself finger foods, but   I can’t wave bye-bye yet. How old am I?

 

a.

6 months

· Question 76

 

You would be   concerned about the language development of a child who:

 

b.

Stutters when excited or tired at the age of 7

· Question 77

 

Most children can   independently get dressed by themselves by age:

 

d.

5 years

· Question 78

 

A differential   diagnosis for child abuse would include all of the   following except.

 

b.

Prader-Wlli syndrome

· Question 79

 

Which of the   following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?

 

b.

Unilateral vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid in a 3-week old.

· Question 80

 

A 2-year-old child weighs 34   lb. What type of car seat should the child use?

 

b.

A forward-facing car seat in the back of the vehicle.

· Question 81

 

An expected   milestone of a 4-year-old is the ability to

 

c.

Copy a cross

· Question 82

 

Sam has an otitis   media. He also presents with conjunctivitis. This is due to which organism?

 

a.

Haemophilus influenza

· Question 83

 

A 14-year   old has ataxia. He is brought to the local emergency department, where he   appears euphoric, emotionally labile, and disoriented. Many notice his   abusive language. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible   for his condition?

 

a.

Alcohol

· Question 84

 

What method can be   safely used to remove cerumen in a 15-month-old child’s ear?

 

d.

Irrigation using warm water from a soft bulb syringe

· Question 85

 

The appropriate lab   tests in assessment of cervical adenitis include all of the   following except:

 

a.

Blood culture

· Question 86

 

Which of the   following represents normal sequencing of development in a toddler?

 

b.

Feeds self, can undress self with help, washes hands, imitates     housework.

· Question 87

 

You see a young child who has   tripled her birth weight and looks for hidden objects. When given blocks, she   places one in each hand. She has a fine pincer grasp. On the floor, she   walks around holding objects and is trying to take independent steps. This   child is most likely how old?

 

c.

12 months

· Question 88

 

During a domestic health   assessment, the CDC recommends screening every refugee child for which of the   following diseases?

 

d.

tuberculosis

· Question 89

 

A 4-month-old   presents with both eyes turning inward. What is this called?

 

b.

Esotropia

· Question 90

 

A mother brings her   4-week-old infant into the office because she noticed small yellow-white   glistening bumps on her infant’s gums. She says they look like teeth but is   concerned that they may be cancer. You diagnose these bumps as

 

d.

Epstein’s pearls

· Question 91

 

The parents of a   7-year-old are concerned their son does not want to attend school. Which of   the historical findings are not usually associated with the   diagnosis of school phobia?

 

d.

Chronic medical illness

· Question 92

 

You are doing a   kindergarten physical on a 5-year-old girl. Which of the following scenarios   would suggest the child is not ready to start kindergarten in the fall?

 

d.

Counts to 4 and draws a person with three parts.

· Question 93

 

Which of the   following children should be referred for a comprehensive developmental   evaluation?

 

a.

A 3-year-old who consistently tracks at the 5th percentile for height     and weight since birth.

· Question 94

 

Sarah, 7 years old,   is in the office today. All of the following are acceptable management   options for allergic rhinitis, except

 

b.

Nasal neosynephrine

· Question 95

 

You see a 3-year-old for a   well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very   easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry,   and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which   aspect of temperament?

 

a.

Rhythmicity

· Question 96

 

You see a healthy   18-month-old for a well-child visit. At the 12-month visit he received the   diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) third dose; hepatitis B   second dose; measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) first dose; injected   poliovirus (IPV) second dose; pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) fourth dose; and   Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) fourth dose. Which of the following do   you order today?

 

c.

DTaP, varicella, hepatitis A, and hepatitis B

· Question 97

 

The results of the hemoglobin   A1c test are LESS reliable in children with which of the following   conditions? (Hint: select two)

 

Selected     Answers:

a.

Cystic Fibrosis

 

b.

Sickle Cell Disease

· Question 98

 

You see a 5-month-old who is   fussy, has interrupted sleep, and is drooling. You note large lower lateral   incisor bulges. You recommend:

 

· Question 99

 

A 7-month-old male is found   to have a spiral fracture of the femur that his father says he got by   climbing onto a chair and then jumping off. Which of the following statements   is true regarding this situation?

 

· Question 100

 

The nurse   practitioner role was initially established to

 

· Question 101

 

Which of the following is a   true contraindication of vaccinating a child?

 

NURS 6541 Midterm Exam / NURS 6541 Midterm Exam (Latest): Primary Care of Adolescents and Children: Walden University

 

· Question 1 

1 out of 1 points

 

Medicaid provides   health insurance coverage to

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Certain categories of     people whose personal income falls below a certain percentage of the     federal poverty level.

· Question 2 

1 out of 1 points

 

A differential   diagnosis for child abuse would include all of the following except.

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Prader-Wlli     syndrome

· Question 3 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following injuries is most likely to be caused by abuse of a toddler?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

A displaced     posterior rib fracture.

· Question 4 

1 out of 1 points

 

You are doing a   kindergarten physical on a 5-year-old girl. Which of the following scenarios   would suggest the child is not ready to start kindergarten in the fall?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Counts to 4 and     draws a person with three parts.

· Question 5 

1 out of 1 points

 

The first sign of   the onset of female puberty is usually:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Breast buds

· Question 6 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a   7-year-old with complaints of “having accidents at night.” Physical   exam and history are unremarkable. Urinalysis, urine culture, and specific   gravity are normal. His parents ask about the best treatment for this   problem. The best response is

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Fluid restriction     and voiding prior to the night may be effective.

· Question 7 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following statements about bullying is true?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

It occurs most     commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess, etc.).

· Question 8 

1 out of 1 points

 

The mother of a   5-year-old informs you that her daughter cheats when playing board games.   What is the best response?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Tell the mother to spend     time clarifying board game rules before starting games.

· Question 9 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following conditions requires urgent inpatient admission?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Epiglottis

· Question 10 

1 out of 1 points

 

All of the following are consistent with   peritonsillar abscess except: 

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Trismus

· Question 11 

1 out of 1 points

 

The parents of a   7-year-old are concerned their son does not want to attend school. Which of   the historical findings are not usually associated with the diagnosis   of school phobia?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Chronic medical     illness

· Question 12 

1 out of 1 points

 

You are performing   an examination of a 3-year-old who is new to your office. Which finding   requires immediate further evaluation?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Heart rate     increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration.

· Question 13 

1 out of 1 points

 

A child’s head   circumference is routinely measured on each well visit until what age?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

2 years

· Question 14 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which   of the following children has abnormal language development?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Speech is 50%     understandable at 36 months of age

· Question 15 

1 out of 1 points

 

Please interpret   the following labs for an adolescent. The adolescent has a history of obesity   and acanthosis nigricans.

 

Test

Results

 

Fasting blood     glucose

112 mg/dL

 

2 hour     postprandial glucose

138 mg/dL

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Impaired fasting     glucose, postprandial glucose within normal limits

· Question 16 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Erikson’s     initiative versus guilt

· Question 17 

1 out of 1 points

 

The diagnostic   criteria for autism spectrum disorder include all of the following except

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Tolerance of     flexibility with routines

· Question 18 

1 out of 1 points

 

Conductive hearing   loss can be caused by

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Serous otitis

· Question 19 

1 out of 1 points

 

The most common   substance used in middle school is

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Alcohol

· Question 20 

1 out of 1 points

 

The results of the   hemoglobin A1c test are LESS reliable in children with which of the following   conditions? (Hint: select two)

 

Selected Answers:

a.

Cystic Fibrosis

 

b.

Sickle Cell Disease

· Question 21 

1 out of 1 points

 

A teenage female   who is overweight has moderate acne on the face and chest, and irregular   menses. Elevation of which laboratory test provides the test evidence of   polycystic ovarian syndrome?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

free testosterone

· Question 22 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark is in the exam   room. You are concerned he may have epiglottitis. In what position do these   patients prefer to sit?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Sitting up and     leaning forward

· Question 23 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 30-month-old who speaks   in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low   end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s   development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You   respond:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

“Your     child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the words     from both languages until about 3 years of age.”

· Question 24 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following characterizes middle adolescence (14 to 16 years old)?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Intense peer     group involvement, feelings of immortality, sexual experimentation

· Question 25 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 4-year-old for a   well-child visit. He has received four diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular   pertussis vaccines (DTaP); three injected polio vaccines (IPV); one measles,   mumps, and rubella vaccine (MMR); one varicella vaccine; and two hepatitis B   (Hep B) vaccines. What do you order today?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

DTaP, IPV, MMR,     and Varivax

· Question 26 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 14-year old has ataxia. He is   brought to the local emergency department, where he appears euphoric,   emotionally labile, and a bit disoriented. He has nystagmus and   hypersalivation. Many notice his abusive language. Which of the following   agents is most likely responsible for his condition?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Alcohol

· Question 27 

1 out of 1 points

 

Parents bring their 6-month-old   son to see you. He is symmetrically less than the 5th percentile for   height, weight and head circumference. He was born at 30 weeks’ gestation and   weighed 1000g. He was a planned pregnancy, and his mother’s prenatal course was   uneventful until an automobile accident initiated the labor. He was   ventilated for 3 days in the intensive care unit but otherwise did well   without ongoing problems. He was discharged at 8 weeks of life. Which of the   following is the most likely explanation for his small size?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Normal ex-preemie     infant growth

· Question 28 

1 out of 1 points

 

A fifteen-year-old   female makes a statement to you during a well visit. Which of the following   statements should not be kept confidential?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

“Sometimes I     feel like ending my life.”

· Question 29 

1 out of 1 points

 

Most children can   independently get dressed by themselves by age:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

5 years

· Question 30 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 13-month-old child is noted to   be at the 25th percentile for weight, the 10th percentile for height, and   less than the 5th percentile for head circumference. She was born   at term. She was noted to have a small head at birth, to be developmentally   delayed throughout her life, and to have required cataract surgery shortly   after birth. She currently takes phenobarbital for seizures. Which of the   following would most likely explain this child’s small size?

 

Selected Answer:

e.

Congenital cytomegalovirus     infection

· Question 31 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 4-month-old child has poor weight gain. Her current   weight is less than the 5th percentile, height about the 10th percentile, and   head circumference at the 50th percentile. The planned pregnancy resulted in   a normal, spontaneous, vaginal delivery; mother and child were discharged   after a 48-hour hospitalization. Feeding is via breast and bottle; the   quantity seems sufficient. The child has had no illness. The examination is   unremarkable except for the child’s small size. Screening laboratory shows   the hemoglobin and hematocrit are 11 mg/dL and 33% respectively, with a   platelet count of 198,000/mm3. Serum electrolyte levels are sodium 140,   chloride 105, potassium 3.5, bicarbonate 17, blood urea nitrogen 15, and   creatinine 0.3. Liver function tests are normal. Urinalysis reveals a pH of 8   with occasional epithelial cells but no white blood cells, bacteria, protein,   ketones, or reducing substances. Which of the following is the most   appropriate therapy for this child?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Oral supplementation     with bicarbonate

· Question 32 

1 out of 1 points

 

Chelsea, age 8,   complains that she feels as if something is stuck in her ear. What action is   contraindicated?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Flushing the ear     with water.

· Question 33 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following substances is associated with pupillary constriction?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Heroin

· Question 34 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following children should be referred for a comprehensive developmental   evaluation?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

A 3-year-old who     consistently tracks at the 5th percentile for height and weight since     birth.

· Question 35 

0 out of 1 points

 

John is diagnosed   with allergic conjunctivitis. What type of discharge do you expect to see   upon exam?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Serous and clear

· Question 36 

1 out of 1 points

 

You diagnose a   16-year-old with acute otitis media and need to prescribe an antibiotic with   beta-lactamase coverage. What do you choose?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

amoxicillin and     potassium clavulanate (Augmentin)

· Question 37 

1 out of 1 points

 

A new mom calls the   NP on postpartum day 5. She reports her newborn wants to nurse for 30 minutes   every 1-1/2 to 2 hours. Which of these is the best response?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

“This is a     very healthy breastfeeding pattern. Be sure to rest when you can. You are     doing a great job.”

· Question 38 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following represents normal sequencing of development in a toddler?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Feeds self, can     undress self with help, washes hands, imitates housework.

· Question 39 

1 out of 1 points

 

By what age should most children   be able to sit well without support?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

9 months

· Question 40 

1 out of 1 points

 

A common feature of   2-year-old behavior is:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Stranger anxiety

· Question 41 

1 out of 1 points

 

You assess a   15-year-old’s visual acuity and note her vision to be 20/50 in the right eye.   She asks you what that means and you respond

 

Selected Answer:

d.

“You can see     at 20 feet with your right eye what most people can see at 50 feet.”

· Question 42 

1 out of 1 points

 

Flourescein   staining of the eye is used to detect a

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Corneal abrasion

· Question 43 

1 out of 1 points

 

Blood pressure   should be measured at well-child visits starting at age:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

3 years

· Question 44 

1 out of 1 points

 

Sarah, 7 years old,   is in the office today. All of the following are acceptable management   options for allergic rhinitis, except

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Nasal     neosynephrine

· Question 45 

1 out of 1 points

 

During a “well-child” visit, the   parents of a healthy 5-month-old offer a great amount of information. Which   of the following bits of information is of most concern?

 

Selected Answer:

b. Limited eye contact with     parents.

· Question 46 

1 out of 1 points

 

At what age would a   child be expected to remember a string of numbers and repeat them backwards?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

12 years

· Question 47 

1 out of 1 points

 

During a domestic   health assessment, the CDC recommends screening every refugee child for which   of the following diseases?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

tuberculosis

· Question 48 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following signs may indicate a baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Sleepiness,     jaundice, and vomiting

· Question 49 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Unilateral     vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid in a 3-week old.

· Question 50 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following statements regarding adolescent substance use is true?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Tobacco is the     most commonly abused substance during adolescence.

· Question 51 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following vaccines is   routinely recommended at 4 months of age?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Diphtheria,     tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP)

· Question 52 

1 out of 1 points

 

The nurse   practitioner role was initially established to

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Improve access to     care and partially solve physician shortage.

· Question 53 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark, a   10-year-old, has a lot of ear pain. He does not want anyone to touch it and   is crying in pain. The ear canal is swollen and exudate is present. The TM is   normal. Mark should be instructed to do which of the following?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Keep ear dry     until symptoms improve.

· Question 54 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 4-year-old   believes there is more juice in a tall, thin glass than a shorter, wider one.   The child has not yet achieved which of the principles of Piaget?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Conservation

· Question 55 

1 out of 1 points

 

Early   reflexive responses that are not related to survival include all but:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Swimming

· Question 56 

1 out of 1 points

 

You would be   concerned about the language development of a child who:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Stutters when excited or     tired at the age of 7

· Question 57 

1 out of 1 points

 

The appropriate lab   tests in assessment of cervical adenitis include all of the following except:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Blood culture

· Question 58 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 4-month-old   presents with both eyes turning inward. What is this called?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Esotropia

· Question 59 

1 out of 1 points

 

An 8-year-old female is brought   into the office by her mother. She has complaints of fever and sore throat   for the past 2 days. She denies difficulty swallowing but has loss of   appetite and mild diarrhea. A few classmates have similar symptoms. A review of   systems reveals clear nasal drainage, dry cough, and hoarseness. On exam she   has a 101.5 temperature, 3+ erythematous tonsils, and anterior cervical   lymphadenopathy. What is the likely diagnosis?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Viral pharyngitis

· Question 60 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 13-year-old who reports   she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability to   successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget developmental   stage?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Concrete     operational

· Question 61 

1 out of 1 points

 

An 8-year-old   female has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for 2 days   with a fever of 102.9 (F). Which important eye assessment do you need to   consider?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Ocular mobility

· Question 62 

1 out of 1 points

 

Tammy, age 3, is at   the office for her well-child visit. She has trouble removing her own shirt   as requested. Her mother yanks off her shirt after smacking her wrist and saying,   “you must do as you’re told quickly.” Which action is indicated?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Observe Tammy for     signs of child abuse.

· Question 63 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is a true contraindication of   vaccinating a child?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Previous     vaccination reaction that consisted of wheezing and hypotension

· Question 64 

1 out of 1 points

 

The parent of a 2-year-old tells   you her daughter recently started having breath-holding spells. She tells you   the older sibling “did the same thing” and asks you for help. You advise her   that after a breath-holding event:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Act as if nothing     abnormal happened.

· Question 65 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a healthy 18-month-old for   a well-child visit. At the 12-month visit he received the diphtheria,   tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) third dose; hepatitis B second dose;   measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) first dose; injected poliovirus (IPV) second   dose; pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) fourth dose; and Haemophilus influenzae   type B (Hib) fourth dose. Which of the following do you order today?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

DTaP, varicella,     hepatitis A, and hepatitis B

· Question 66 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 7-year-old boy with mental retardation was born at home   at 26 weeks gestation to a 28-year-old mother who had received no prenatal   care. An evaluation is likely to suggest his MR is related to which of the   following?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Complications of     prematurity

· Question 67 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which is the   correct order for introduction of solid foods to an infant?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Cereal,     vegetables, fruits, and meats

· Question 68 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following foreign body in the nose requires immediate removal?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

battery

· Question 69 

1 out of 1 points

 

A Mantoux test in a   child with no risk factors is considered positive with a reaction of:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

at least 15 mm     induration

· Question 70 

1 out of 1 points

 

Parents bring their 16-year-old   daughter for a “well-child” checkup. She looks normal on examination. As part   of your routine care you plan a urinalysis. The father pulls you aside and   asks you to secretly run a UDS on his daughter. Which of the following is the   most appropriate course of action?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Explore the     reasons for the request with the parents and the adolescent and perform a     UDS with the adolescent’s permission if the history warrants.

· Question 71 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-year-old boy has been slightly   less than the 50th percentile for weight, height and head circumference, but   in the last 6 months he has fallen to slightly less than the 25th percentile   for weight. The pregnancy was normal, his development is as expected, and the   family reports no psychosocial problems. The mother says that he is now a   finicky eater (wants only macaroni and cheese at all meals), but she insists   that he eat a variety of foods. The meals are marked by much frustration for   everyone. His examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next   step in his care?

 

Selected Answer:

e.

Reassurance and     counseling for family about childhood normal developmental stage

· Question 72 

1 out of 1 points

 

You receive a phone call from the   mother of a 2-year-old. She states her child has sleep refusal. You suggest   the child should be able to:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Set his own     bedtime based on his internal clock.

· Question 73 

1 out of 1 points

 

All of the following may predispose a   patient to thrush except: 

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Poor oral hygiene

· Question 74 

1 out of 1 points

 

Sarah, age 15,   presents with pain and pressure over her cheeks and discolored nasal   discharge. You cannot transilluminate the sinuses. You suspect which common   sinus to be affected?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Maxillary sinus

· Question 75 

1 out of 1 points

 

I can walk well on tiptoes, my   speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I cannot balance on   one foot for 1 second. I am:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

2-1/2 years old (30 months)

· Question 76 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following screenings should adolescents have done annually?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Psychosocial     screening, blood pressure, body mass index

· Question 77 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 6-month-old infant has been   growing poorly. His parents have changed his formula three times without   success. His examination is remarkable for a pale, emaciated child with   little subcutaneous fat and anterior fontanelle fullness. His laboratory test   results are notable for a hemolytic anemia and prolonged bleeding times.   Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

Obtain a sweat chloride     concentration

· Question 78 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 3-year-old for a   well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very   easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry,   and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which aspect   of temperament?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Rhythmicity

· Question 79 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 12-year-old male   states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling   him about the next step in pubertal development, you state:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

The penis will     grow in length and width.

· Question 80 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 14-year-old female comes into   the office for an urgent visit after taking 10 valium tablets.    Following the initial emergent care and stailization, the most important part   of the management is:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Assessing the     family supports available to the child.

· Question 81 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-year-old child weighs 34 lb.   What type of car seat should the child use?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

A forward-facing car seat     in the back of the vehicle.

· Question 82 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and   adolescents to have healthy sexual development?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Begin     anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal development     in the early school-age visits.

· Question 83 

1 out of 1 points

 

Epiglottitis has   decreased due to which immunization?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Hib

· Question 84 

1 out of 1 points

 

Role-play with   equipment during the course of the physical exam would be the most beneficial   with which age group?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Preschoolers

· Question 85 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-day-old   newbornwith conjunctivitis is likely due to

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Gonorrhea

· Question 86 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 9-year-old who   weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat of the   family car. Your best response is

 

Selected Answer:

d.

The safest place     for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is in the backseat of the     car.

· Question 87 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the   following would not suggest an eating disorder with a purging   component?

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Finger calluses

· Question 88 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 6-month-old for a   well-child visit and the mother tells you the child’s grandmother recommends   that she give the infant whole milk and eggs when he starts solids. What   should you tell the mother?

 

Selected Answer:

d.

The baby should     remain on infant formula and stage 2 and 3 baby foods for now.

· Question 89 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 2-day-old infant has significant   nasal and rectal bleeding. He was delivered by a midwife at home; the   pregnancy was without complications. His Apgar scores were 9 at 1 minute and   9 at 5 minutes. He has breastfed well and has not required a health care   professional visit since birth. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies   might explain his condition?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Vitamin K

· Question 90 

1 out of 1 points

 

You see a 5-month-old who is   fussy, has interrupted sleep, and is drooling. You note large lower lateral   incisor bulges. You recommend:

 

Selected Answer:

e.

A and D

· Question 91 

1 out of 1 points

 

The most likely   weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6-1/2 pounds would be:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

19 to 20 pounds

· Question 92 

1 out of 1 points

 

Head and chest   circumferences should be equal at:

 

Selected Answer:

d.

1 years of age

· Question 93 

1 out of 1 points

 

An 11-year-old girl   has dizziness, pupillary dilation, nausea, fever, techycardia, and facial   flushing. She says she can “see” sound and “hear” colors.   The agent likely to be responsible is which of the following?

 

Selected Answer:

a.

Lysergic acid     diethylamide (LSD)

· Question 94 

1 out of 1 points

 

FIRST-LINE therapy   for preschoolers (4-5 years of age) diagnosed with attention-deficit   hyperactive disorder is:

 

Selected Answer:

c.

Behavior therapy

· Question 95 

1 out of 1 points

 

Max, a 9-year-old   boy, is a very active child with limited self-control. He is easily   distracted and has difficulty staying on task. You determine that he should   have a neurodevelopmental evaluation because he is showing signs of

 

Selected Answer:

a.

ADHD

· Question 96 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 3-year-old (37 months) refuses   to have bowel movements on the toilet. He is bladder trained. He goes and   hides and squats when having bowel movements. Positive encouragement and   praise is not working. You advise:

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Tell the parent     this is normal; the child will eventually train himself, but it is     difficult to wait.

· Question 97 

1 out of 1 points

 

A typically   developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital   development?

 

Selected Answer:

c.

No pubic hair at     all

· Question 98 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following are important considerations when   screening child refugees for tuberculosis? SELECT TWO (2)

 

Selected Answers:

c.

IGRA may be     falsely positive in children who have autoimmune disorders.

 

d.

Mantoux TST     should not be used in a child who has received a Bacille Calmette-Guerin     vaccination.

· Question 99 

1 out of 1 points

 

The mother of a   4-year-old tells you he likes to “play with himself” while playing   and watching television. You advise the mother to

 

Selected Answer:

b.

Explain to the     child that masturbation is something that should be done in private.

· Question 100 

1 out of 1 points

 

A 7-year-old has just been   diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Her parents   report that she is doing poorly in school and is disruptive in the classroom.   They ask you what they can do. Your best response is:

 

Selected Answer:

a.

“Use a     consistent approach with behavioral cues both at home and at school.”

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Pros and Cons of Mandatory Continuing Nursing Education

February 15, 2025/in Nursing Questions /by Besttutor

Pros and cons of mandatory continuing nursing education

Karen DeFilippis, Idalmis Espinosa

Lasharia Graham, Ijeoma Igbokwe

Karan Kortlander, Jessica McGillen

October 01, 2017

objectives

Discuss the pros and cons of continuing education in nursing in the following areas:

Impact on competency.

Impact on knowledge and attitudes.

Relationship to professional certification.

Relationship to ANA Scope and Standards of Practice.

Relationship to ANA Code of Ethics.

 

Impact on competency

Pros: Cons:

Increased personal knowledge Time

Increased use of EBP treatments Cost

Improved patient outcomes

Increased confidence

Developing and maintaining skills

Professional Networking

 

 

“Currently in many states, a nurse is determined to be competent when initially licensed and thereafter unless proven otherwise. Yet many believe this is not enough and are exploring other approaches to assure continuing competence in today’s environment where technology and practice are continually changing, new health care systems are evolving and consumers are pressing for providers who are competent” (Whittaker, Carson, & Smolenski, 2000).

 

“The ultimate outcomes of continuing nursing education (CNE) activities are to improve the professional practice of nursing and thereby the care that is provided by registered nurses to patients” (American Nurses Credentialing Center’, 2014)

 

Effective workplace learning, based on current evidence, appears to show potential to prevent errors, support health professional reflection on practice and performance, foster ongoing professional development, and sustain improved individual and organization performance outcomes.

 

Cost- “Continuing education can be costly. For instance, it is costly to pay employees to attend a nursing lecture or conference and to be away from the patients’ bedside. Additionally, purchasing videos or subscribing to magazines does require an associated payment. Lastly, implementing a change is costly it requires training and often new equipment. Without question, cost is a confounding variable” (Ward, 2013)

 

Time- This can be time away from work and family. For the employer ‘implementing a change in practice does require time, as does completing continuing education credit hours. This could mean time away from the patient which, in most instances, is frowned upon” (Ward, 2013)

 

 

3

Pros of higher education in nursing

Enhance patients’ outcome.

Reduces medication errors.

Update with new trends.

Increased knowledge on technology use.

Treatment evaluation and recovery.

Enhance collaboration and networking.

Widens employment opportunities for nurses (University of Saint Mary,2017).

 

Higher nursing education prepares nurses to make a difference in delivering safe and effective care to patients, nurses gain the skills needed to safely administer medication while eliminating or reducing medication errors, monitoring and assessing the patient’s response to medications (University of Saint Mary, 2017). Nurses acquire proficiency on the use of new technologies because higher education programs explores the latest technology. Nurses are updated on the new trends in healthcare to keep up with patients’ changing needs. Nurses are able to effectively and proficiently coordinate patients’ care by collaborating and communicating with other health care teams, gain new knowledge through networking; nurses are exposed to seminars where they meet and interact with other healthcare professional.

Nurses are prepared to evaluate patients’ response to treatment and follow up after discharge to improve the quality of patients lives (University of Saint Mary, 2017). Nurses who have higher education certificates have more employment opportunities. Most hospitals requiring nurses to go back to school to get BSN, and preferring to hire nurses who have BSN.

 

4

Cons and attitudes of not continuing with higher education in nursing

Limited career opportunities and positions.

Poor patient outcome.

Lack of confidence.

Limited Knowledge, competency and skills.

Lack of opportunities for collaboration.

 

There are several disadvantage of not pursing higher education in nursing, nurses are most times denied of a job or a position due to the level of their education. Nurses who starts as staff nurses are promoted to a higher position with experience, good performance and continuous education (College Grad, 2017). Studies have linked poor patients outcome to lack of nursing skills and knowledge; Thus to enhance patient’s safety and quality care, nurses are required to go for a higher education or study as recommended in Institute of medicine report . Higher education does not only benefit the patients but also boost the confidence of nurses. Lack of confidence decrease self-esteem, every nurses needs to believe in him/herself to work effectively and efficiently while collaborating with other health care team. Lack of education limits learning new skills and opportunity to grow in knowledge and also could hinder opportunities to fellowship or collaborate effectively with other health care professionals.

 

5

Pros of continuing higher education related to the relationship to professional certification

Increases knowledge and quality of care in nursing practice.

Enhances nurses’ ability to compete in the job market.

Develops a nurses’ confidence and professionalism.

Defines nursing practice and attests to ongoing qualifications (Brunt).

The ANA defines certification as an achievement of exemplary nursing knowledge; therefore, continuing education promotes the above noted benefits. The question of mandatory continuing education for nurses has been brewing since the 1960s (Brunt). The National League for Nursing supports that mandatory continuing education should be required for relicensure. Currently, there are more than 68 various certifications available to nurses, and most of them require continuing education programs.

6

CONS OF CONTINUING HIGHER EDUCATION RELATED TO THE RELATIONSHIP TO PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATION

Cons include:

Education does not assure competence.

Continuing education is expensive.

Evaluation tools are ineffective and not always accurate (Brunt).

Continuing education does not show evidence of better patient-care outcomes (Eustace, 2001).

 

 

Those opposed to mandatory continuing education maintain that as professionals, nurses are personally responsible to identify and acquire appropriate education (Brunt). Some have pointed out that mandatory continuing education does not necessarily address advanced practice nurses, or those in administration, research, and education. Others argue that it may be difficult to obtain continuing education in remote areas, and that most healthcare practitioners already take part in continuing education on their own (Brunt).

7

PROS TO CONTINUING EDUCATION RELATED TO ANA SCOPE AND STANDARDS OF PRACTICE

Improves quality of patient care

Expands knowledge and contribute to career growth

Ensures competency in practice

Providing best evidence based nursing care

 

 

The scope of practice is defined by the , “who”, “what”, “where”, “when”, “why”, and “how” of nursing practice. The practice of nursing requires specialized knowledge, skills and independent decision making. Every nurse should be knowledgeable and up to date with the latest evidence based practice in order to provide the best care to their patients. With higher education nurses are able to take on leadership roles. Leadership roles are important to help lead change to transform health care, and for “public, private, and governmental health care decision makers at every level” to “include representation from nursing on boards (Campaign for Action, 2014).

8

CONS TO CONTINUING EDUCATION RELATED TO ANA SCOPE AND STANDARDS OF CARE

Cost of Tuition

Balancing Personal life

Lack of appropriate knowledge on the subject

Lack of a guarantee that the continuing education standards will assist the nurse in the nursing field

 

 

The cost of going back to school can be very expensive. There are programs to help pay for some of the cost for tuition, but you still are responsible for a portion of the tuition. Some may not even know about the different programs to help you pay for school. They may be paying out of pocket. And we all know once we graduate, loan repayment will be waiting on us.

Another disadvantage of returning to school is balancing personal life. Some of us work full time jobs and have kids like myself. I also have a part time job as well. It can become very difficult squeezing classes in on top of our already busy schedule. Sometimes I don’t get a chance to do my work until the last minute when its due. I know there were plenty of times I felt like just giving up on classes because I don’t have enough time in a day to get every thing done. Then I start thinking of all the benefits of higher education

9

CODE OF ETHICS provision 5 related to Continuing Education

As outlined by the ANA, provision 5 includes that nurses owe the same duties to self as others, this includes responsibility to preserve integrity and safety, maintain competence, and to continue personal professional growth (Fowler and American Nurse Association, 2010).

PROS

Fair and equal treatment

Safe patient care

Be competent

Be educated to provide the best care

Grow professional and personally

Expand career knowledge and skills

Integrity

Builds confidence

Helps guide better decision making

Creates trust

Extends positive influence

 

 

 

 

CONS

Personal and professional growth requires a time commitment

Being competent and advancing can include a financial commitment

Growing pains

Feeling out of comfort zone

The Code of Ethics is a public expression of what a nurse commits oneself to when entering the workforce as a nurse. The Code expresses values, duties, and commitments that all nurses will strive for (ANA, 2010). There are many pros and a few cons to nurses agreeing to follow the Code of Ethics. The pros mentioned above can greatly outweigh the cons. As nurses we are here to serve people, we extend ourselves to care for others. In caring for others we must also care for our self in the process. The ANA outlines for professional growth a nurse is responsible for “continued reading, study, observation, and investigation” (2010). All of the above are outlined by the ANA.

 

10

CODE OF ETHICS PROVISION 7 RELATED TO CONTINING EDUCATION

Fowler and the American Nurses Association defined provision 7 as, a nurses participation in the advancement of the profession through contributions to practice, education, administration, and knowledge development (2010).

PROS

Advancements

In education

In practices of care

In administration

Knowledge

CONS

Having the need to want advancement

Time commitment

Possible financial commitment

Growing pains

Being pushed out of your comfort zone

Nurses are the forefront of advancement for the medical field. We hold many positions from floor nursing, administration and educators within the health care system. For the field of nursing and nurses to continue to grow and advance we all must pledge to participate in advancing the profession with education, and the search of knowledge. Examples of ways that nursing has advanced from the past is nurses now have advanced degrees such as: Master and doctoral level educations and also Nurse Practitioners. The ANA provides specifics on where nurses can advance the profession; be involved in healthcare policy, develop, maintain and implement professional standards in clinical practice, administration and education practices, and apply knowledge development, dissemination and application to practice (2010). As nurses the ANA Code of Ethics provides a pathway to things that will improve nursing practice as a whole.

11

CODE OF ETHICS

 

CONCLUSION

 

References

American Nurses Credentialing Center. (2014). The Importance of Evaluating the Impact of Continuing Nursing Education on Outcomes:Professional Nursing Practice and Patient Care. Retrieved from http://www.nurse.credentialing.org/Accreditation/

 

Fowler, M. D., & American Nurses Association. (2010). Guide to the code of ethics for nurses: Interpretation and application. Silver Spring, MD: American Nurses Association.

 

 

Ward, J. (2013, January 23). The Pros and Cons of Getting Nursing CEUs. Retrieved from Nurse Together: http://

www.nursetogether.com/pros-and-cons-getting-nursing-ceus

 

Whittaker, S., Carson , W., & Smolenski, M. C. (2000, September). Assuring Continued Competence – Policy Questions and Approaches: How Should the Profession Respond? Online Journal of Issues in Nursing. Retrieved from : http://www.nursingworld.org/MainMenuCategories/ANAMarketplace/ANAPeriodicals/

Brunt, B. The importance of lifelong learning in managing risks. The Nursing

Risk Management Series(3). Retrieved from http://ana.nursingworld.org/mods/archive/mod311

 

Eustace, L. (2001). Mandatory continuing education:past, present, and future trends & issues.

The Journal of Continuing Education in Nursing 32(3).

 

 

 

References

Nursing: Scope and Standard of Practice. Retrieved from www.nursingworld.org

ANA Leadership – American Nurses Foundation. Retrieved from www.anfonline.org

 

University of Saint Mary. (2017) Higher Nursing Education and its Impact on Patient Safety. Retrieved on September 21st from http://online.stmary.edu/rn-bsn/resources/higher-nursing-education-impact-on-patient-safety

 

College Grad (2017) Registered nurses. Retrieved September 24th, from https://collegegrad.com/careers/registered-nurses

 

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