Counseling Theories CNL-500 Topic 2: Classical Theory Comparison Worksheet

CNL-500 Topic 2: Classical Theory Comparison Worksheet

 

Directions: Compare the three theories by answering the questions listed below for each theory as indicated. For the first two questions in the table, each theory should include a 75-100-word explanation. Include a minimum of two scholarly resources for each theory (total of six resources) in addition to the course textbook and include in-text citations when appropriate. Include a full APA formatted reference for the sources used below.

 

Questions Neoanalytic Jungian Individual Psychology
Explain the goals for therapy from each theoretical orientation. (75-100 words each)

 

     
Identify at least two techniques for each theory and the benefit to the client. (75-100 words each) Technique 1:

 

Technique 2:

 

Benefit to the Client:

 

Technique 1:

 

Technique 2:

 

Benefit to the Client:

Technique 1:

 

Technique 2:

 

Benefit to the Client:

List the stages of counseling and how long it would take to complete the process.

 

     
List the counselor’s and client’s roles. Counselor’s Roles:

 

Client’s Roles:

 

Counselor’s Roles:

 

Client’s Roles:

Counselor’s Roles:

 

Client’s Roles:

List the three qualities of a healthy person for each theory. 1.

2.

3.

1.

2.

3.

1.

2.

3.

 

 

References

 

© 2019. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.

 

© 2019. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.

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Kara is 10 years old. She has been given an intelligence test. Her mental age is 13. According to Sternberg, what is her IQ? Conduct research and interpret her score. Choose two theories of intelligence. Write a 150- to 200-word discussion on the compon

  Title

ABC/123 Version X

1
  Week 2 Assignment Worksheet

PSY/203 Version 1

1

University of Phoenix Material

Week 2 Assignment Worksheet

The Process of Memory (4 Points)

In the following spaces provided, list the term that corresponds with the definition in each numbered box.

 

image1.emfSensory Input

1. Hold

information as

either an icon or

echo

Forgetting

Attention

2. Transforming

information into

a storable form.

3. Sub-system

that retains and

processes new

information for a

short period of

time

4. The process

of transforming

short-term

memories into

long-term

memories

6. The process of breaking

down information into

smaller pieces

7. The process of repeating

information to enhance

retention

Forgetting

8. The process of assigning meaning to

information to transfer to long-term

memory

5. Sub-system

that retains

information for

long periods of

time

Forgetting

Retrieval

 

1. _________________________

2. Encoding

3. _________________________

4. _________________________

5. _________________________

6. Chunking

7. __________________________

8. __________________________

Computing IQ Essay (4 Points)

Consider the following scenario.

Kara is 10 years old. She has been given an intelligence test. Her mental age is 13. According to Sternberg, what is her IQ? Conduct research and interpret her score.

Choose two theories of intelligence.

Write a 150- to 200-word discussion on the components of each theory, and how they differ in relation to Spearman’s g.

Copyright © XXXX by University of Phoenix. All rights reserved.

Copyright © 2013 by University of Phoenix. All rights reserved.

_1438416177.vsd

Sensory Input

1. Hold information as either an icon or echo

Forgetting

Attention

2. Transforming information into a storable form.

3. Sub-system that retains and processes new information for a short period of time

4. The process of transforming short-term memories into long-term memories

6. The process of breaking down information into smaller pieces

7. The process of repeating information to enhance retention

8. The process of assigning meaning to information to transfer to long-term memory

Forgetting

5. Sub-system that retains information for long periods of time

Forgetting

Retrieval

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For this milestone, take your case report from PSY 622 and prepare a psychological assessment report that demonstrates use of objective testing data. How do classic and contemporary psychology theories support the claims you have made in your diagnostic c

For this milestone, take your case report from PSY 622 and prepare a psychological assessment report that demonstrates use of objective testing data. How do classic and contemporary psychology theories support the claims you have made in your diagnostic consultation?

Make sure your assessment report accounts for the many possible avenues for gathering evidence in legal situations. You will likely rely on memory in some way, so make sure to discuss any limitations that you will bring to your assessment report. If possible, include measures that you learned about in your previous courses as protective mechanisms against the use of memory. Also, make sure you explain why you are using the assessments you selected. This information is often very important should the report be used in a legal proceeding.

Note: Do not simply cut and paste your assessment choices from PSY 622. Incorporate the feedback given to you in that course and expand or change your assessment choices in order to best fit the current scenario. Remember you were hired by a law firm to create the final report.

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Biopsychology

1. What categories of research methods are used to study human brain function? What are some examples, advantages, and disadvantages of each?

2. What are three key functions that the brain has evolved to perform as a biological organ?

3. Describe three common forms of cognitive bias in human thinking. Can you think of an example of each type in everyday life?

4. What are the key elements of the scientific method? How might each of these elements help to overcome some of the brain’s built-in biases?

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Tp9

Assignment 1

Compose three HIGH QUALITY multiple choice questions relating to content found in Chapter 9 of your textbook.  Number each question #1, #2, or #3. Each question should have four possible answers.  List each answer choice as A, B, C, or D. Make your questions challenging.  Do not make it obvious which answer is the best choice. Do not copy any phrases or sentences directly from the textbook.  Instead, read and learn the information presented, and then put the information into your own words as you develop the questions and answer choices for your assignment. Do NOT post the answers to the questions in your Assignment Post.   Post your Assignment Post, containing all three of the multiple choice questions that you have developed, in the Topic 9 Discussion section of your D2L website before the deadline stated above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Assignment 2

 

Response Post #1:

Select one of your classmate’s Assignment Posts.   TRY TO SELECT A CLASSMATE’S QUIZ THAT NO ONE HAS TAKEN YET, IF POSSIBLE. Answer all three questions that your classmate has developed. Number your answers #1, #2, and #3. Each answer will have four parts/components: 1)  Write the letter of the answer that you think is the best answer.   2)  THEN type out the answer choice that you have selected and put that answer in quotation marks. 3)  THEN state the reason WHY you selected that answer as being the best answer.  Do not just type “Because it’s in the book”, or “Because that’s the right answer”.  Instead, you are to provide an explanation of why that is the best answer, based on what you have learned in Chapter 9.   4)  THEN, in parentheses, list the page number where you located the answer in Chapter 9. Example of how to answer one of your classmate’s quiz questions:   2.

B.

“78% of the population in the Midwest states are of European American background.” (Note: PUT THE TYPED OUT ANSWER IN QUOTATION MARKS)

I selected this answer because it is described in Chapter 9 that, in the Midwest, approximately 16%-36% of the population are minorities, and approximately 78% of the population in the Midwest are European American.

(page 288)     (Note: PUT THE PAGE NUMBER IN PARENTHESES) You’ll do that for all three of questions that your classmate developed.

Response Post #2:

Now, select another classmate’s quiz.   Answer all three questions that the classmate developed for his/her quiz.

Answer the three questions using the same format that you did in Response Post #1, including all four components to each of your answers. So you will have a developed a total of three questions relating to Chapter 9; and, you will have answered a total of six questions relating to Chapter 9. Post your one Assignment Post and your two Response Posts in the Topic 9 DISCUSSION section of your Psy310 MyLeoOnline/D2L website.

Grading of the quizzes that your classmates have taken:

Once someone takes your “quiz”, answering the three questions that you developed, you are to score what they have done by replying to their Response Post and advising them about which questions they answered correctly, and which they answered incorrectly.  Provide explanations as necessary.   If no one takes the quiz that you developed, that will not affect your grade for this assignment.

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Psycology Human Growth & Development

Looking for a movie that will discuss Psychology Human Growth & Development and to complete this assignment

Book Materials

Chapter : About Human Development: A Life-Span View Cover Image Book Title: Human Development: A Life-Span

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ssignment: Psy 370 Ch. 16 Assignment 1. It has been proposed that in the DMS-V, discussion on the concept of autism…

ssignment: Psy 370 Ch. 16 Assignment 1.

It has been proposed that in the DMS-V, discussion on the concept of autism  a. will be removed from the text.

 b. will remain unchanged.

 c. will be replaced with a broader category referred to as “conduct disorders of autistic type” and will drop references to linguistic problems.

 d. be discussed as a single category of “autism spectrum disorders” rather than a list that includes numerous subcategories.

2.

The “DSM” in DSM-IV refers to the  a. Direct Services Method of Psychological Intervention

 b. Diagram of Severe Mental Illnesses

 c. Doctor’s Scientific/Psychological Medical Guide

 d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

3.

In the diathesis-stress model, the term diathesis refers to a(n)  a. social norm.

 b. genetic or personality-based predisposition toward vulnerability.

 c. anxiety-producing environmental event.

 d. state of calm.

4.

According to the diathesis-stress model, psychopathology results when  a. a stressful event triggers an already existing vulnerability or predisposition.

 b. the id develops.

 c. a gene that is programmed to activate at a certain point during the lifespan “turns on” without any trigger.

 d. a mentally healthy person takes a psychoactive drug.

5.

An imbalance in _____ appears to play a role in the acquisition of major depressive disorder.  a. corpus callosum activity

 b. dopamine levels

 c. serotonin levels

 d. beta-amyloids

6.

Echolalia is best described as  a. a lack of organized speech.

 b. parroting what someone else is saying.

 c. saying socially inappropriate things.

 d. not speaking at all.

7.

Under which DSM-IV category would you find autism spectrum disorders?  a. Personality disorders

 b. Adjustment disorders

 c. Pervasive developmental disorders

 d. Dissociative disorders

8.

On the DSM-IV, Asperger syndrome would be found under the label “_____ disorders.”  a. anxiety

 b. autism spectrum

 c. personality

 d. somatoform

9.

Winne has good verbal skills and is highly intelligent, but has social relationship skills typical of an autistic child. Given this description, Winnie is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ syndrome.  a. Down

 b. Kleinfelter

 c. Turner

 d. Asperger

10.

A now retracted article by Wakefield and others claimed that autism is caused by  a. the MMR vaccine.

 b. baby formula fortified with iron.

 c. excessive infantile exposure to television and computer screens.

 d. lead poisoning.

11.

What key evidence has emerged to disprove the myth that thimerosal (a mercury-based preservative) is responsible for autism?  a. The incidence of autism has decreased significantly, but only in females who are immune the impact of thimerosal.

 b. As the amount of thimerosal in baby food has increased, the incidence of autism has decreased.

 c. The incidence of autism has climbed after thimerosal was removed from the MMR vaccine.

 d. Historically, no children with autism ever came into direct contact with thimerosal.

12.

The most likely reason for the increase in the number of children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders is that  a. in the 1990s, Asperger syndrome was removed from the DSM-IV.

 b. in the 1990s, autism was removed from the U.S. list of disabilities eligible for special education services.

 c. there is now a broader definition for what used to be just autism.

 d. the rise has corresponded with the significant increase in the number of infants born with HIV.

13.

What behavior would an infant display that would lead a competent doctor to accurately suspect the child is autistic?  a. Excessive levels of joint attention

 b. Failure to respond to human voices

 c. An obsession with playing peek-a-boo and other social games

 d. Showing a clear preference for human over nonhuman stimuli

14.

Which statement concerning the intellectual abilities of autistic individuals is most accurate?  a. The vast majority of autistics are mildly to severely mentally retarded.

 b. Autistic individuals tend to score lower higher on nonverbal than verbal measures of intelligence.

 c. More than half of children with autism score above 71 on IQ tests.

 d. The description of some individuals with autism as “savants” with special abilities in a given area (e.g., quickly calculating the days of the week corresponding to dates on a calendar) is a myth.

15.

All of the following are currently legitimate suspected causes of autism except  a. lack of a theory of mind.

 b. genetic defect.

 c. a lack of executive functions.

 d. cold, rigid parenting.

16.

Concerning genetic explanations of autism,  a. there is clear evidence that autism is solely due to the presence of a third 21st chromosome.

 b. the genes involved appear to cause a rapid deceleration of head and brain development over the course of the first three years after birth.

 c. at this point there is no evidence of any genetic basis of the disorder.

 d. many genes have been implicated including some that appear to have been copied too many times.

17.

Which brain areas have been implicated as a possible cause of the behavioral problems found in individuals with autism?  a. The hypothalamus and temporal cortex

 b. The hippocampus and parietal cortex

 c. The amygdala and frontal cortex

 d. The thalamus and the occipital cortex

18.

Mirror neurons  a. generate multiple copies of themselves, and each copy leads to an increase in dopamine levels.

 b. are very fragile, and when they “die,” they produce excessive levels of neuritic plaque.

 c. only fire when they are stimulated by other mirror neurons.

 d. allow us to relate the feelings of others to our own experiences.

19.

Executive functions are thought to take place in the _____ cortex of the brain.  a. prefrontal

 b. parietal

 c. temporal

 d. occipital

20.

According to the executive dysfunction hypothesis, autistic behavior is the result of a brain that is  a. unable to plan and change one’s course of actions.

 b. overrun with mirror neurons.

 c. too small.

 d. lacking Broca’s area.

21.

Baron-Cohen has recently suggested that the extreme _____ hypothesis may explain the cause of Asperger syndrome.  a. executive dysfunction

 b. central coherence

 c. male brain

 d. theory-of-mind

22.

According to the extreme male brain theory of autism, the key problem with individuals with autism is that they  a. are too empathetic and try too hard to keep the world orderly.

 b. are too empathetic and do not attempt to keep the world orderly.

 c. lack empathy and try too hard to keep the world orderly.

 d. lack empathy and do not attempt to keep the world orderly.

23.

Recent research has shown that the nasal administration of _____ appears to improve social information and understanding in high-functioning individuals with autism.  a. oxytocin

 b. thimerosal

 c. beta-amyloid

 d. antihistamines

24.

Which statement concerning the long-term prognosis for autistic children is true?  a. Intensive behavior modification programs have been shown to increase levels of aggressiveness and self-stimulation.

 b. Most autistics achieve a normal level of functioning when they reach adulthood.

 c. Most can be improved significantly through drug treatment.

 d. The best interventions involve intensive and highly structured behavioral and educational programs aimed at young children.

25.

Ivar Lovaas conducted pioneering research on children with autism in which he was able to use _____ to significantly improve their language and social skills.  a. mirror therapy

 b. psychoactive medications

 c. psychoanalysis

 d. reinforcement principles

26.

The most accurate statement concerning the use of behavioral and cognitive interventions with children with autism is that they  a. typically lead to significant improvements in all children, regardless of their age or level of intellect.

 b. can lead to significant gains, especially in older children who do have significant intellectual disabilities.

 c. can lead to significant gains, especially in young children who do not have severe intellectual disabilities.

 d. are virtually worthless at changing behaviors.

27.

Which is the best example of a somatic symptom in a depressed infant?  a. Failure to develop an attachment to the primary caregiver

 b. The lack of language

 c. A disrupted sleep pattern

 d. The lack of interest in playing with a toy

28.

Failure to thrive in otherwise healthy infants is usually  a. so severe that it cannot be undone.

 b. attributed to perinatal complications.

 c. misdiagnosed as autism.

 d. the result of having unaffectionate or depressed caregivers.

29.

Depression is most rare in  a. middle adulthood.

 b. young adulthood.

 c. adolescence.

 d. childhood.

30.

By definition, all individuals who are classified with comorbidity  a. are extremely close to death.

 b. possess two psychological conditions at the same time.

 c. have been negatively impacted by both genetic and environmental factors.

 d. cannot control their impulses.

31.

Children who have a depressive disorder  a. differ from adolescents and adults with depression, because children never attempt suicide while the older age groups often do.

 b. often have problems with depression as adolescents and adults.

 c. are easy to identify because they frequently talk about their negative feelings.

 d. seldom respond well to any form of psychotherapy.

32.

Research has shown that _____ treatments tend to be the most effective when treating depression in children.  a. drug

 b. parental intervention

 c. cognitive behavioral

 d. psychoanalytic

33.

Many antidepressant drugs like Prozac are selective _____ reuptake inhibitors.  a. norepinephrine

 b. dopamine

 c. serotonin

 d. GABA

34.

In 2004, the United States government issued a warning concerning the use of some antidepressant drugs and the possible increased risk of ____ in adolescence.  a. birth defects

 b. suicide

 c. addiction

 d. pregnancy

35.

Which is true with regard to psychological “health” during adolescence?  a. Few adolescents who are psychologically disturbed were maladjusted before they reached puberty.

 b. Adolescents are far more likely than adults to experience some sort of psychological disturbance.

 c. Most adolescents suffer at some point from some sort of significant psychological disturbance.

 d. Adolescence is a time of heightened vulnerability for some forms of psychological disorders.

36.

Which statement concerning adolescence is true?  a. Few adolescents engage in delinquent or risky behavior during this period of life.

 b. Adolescents have little difficulty with self-regulatory behaviors.

 c. Most adolescents cope remarkably well with the challenges of this period of life.

 d. Most adolescents experience serious psychopathology during this period of life.

37.

Anorexia nervosa literally means “nervous loss of _____.”  a. appetite

 b. control

 c. mind

 d. weight

38.

Gwen has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Which of the following characteristics would she be least likely to possess?  a. The use of laxatives or self-vomiting to purge food

 b. A refusal to maintain body weight in spite of being in an emaciated state

 c. A feeling of being fat

 d. A tendency to consume huge quantities of foods in a single sitting

39.

According to statistics, who is most likely to commit suicide?  a. Jackson, a 25-year-old black male

 b. George, an 18-year-old black male

 c. Washington, an 80-year-old white male

 d. Andrew, a 45-year-old white male

40.

Which of the following is true with regard to adolescent suicide?  a. More males than females attempt and are successful at committing suicide.

 b. More females attempt suicide, but more males are successful at committing suicide.

 c. More females than males attempt and are successful at committing suicide.

 d. More males attempt suicide, but more females are successful at committing suicide.

41.

According to statistics, what characteristic puts a teenage at the greatest risk for committing suicide?  a. Lving in poverty

 b. Being a victim of physical abuse

 c. A homosexual orientation

 d. A history of behavioral problems

42.

Why is depression difficult to diagnose in older adults?  a. There are no diagnostic criteria for diagnosing depression in the elderly.

 b. As nearly all older depressed individuals commit suicide, there are few depressed individuals left to diagnose.

 c. Many of the diagnostic symptoms are similar to normal losses associated with aging.

 d. Normal cognitive loss associated with aging makes it hard for older people to answer questions about their mental state.

43.

Which statement concerning psychopathology in adulthood is true?  a. A major challenge in treating older individuals with depression is getting them to seek treatment.

 b. The elderly are highly likely to be overdiagnosed with depression.

 c. Treatments for depression in adulthood are highly ineffective.

 d. Depression symptoms in older adulthood are so different from young adulthood that different DSM criteria are used in its detection.

44.

Dementia is best defined as  a. an inevitable, normal change in the brain with age.

 b. a sudden loss of memory and intelligence.

 c. a one-time period of significant disorientation.

 d. a progressive loss of neural functioning.

45.

What is the most common form of dementia?  a. Down syndrome

 b. Parkinson’s disease

 c. Alzheimer’s disease

 d. Vascular dementia

46.

What brain change is best associated with Alzheimer’s disease?  a. Excessive quantities of the metal mercury

 b. Neurofibrillary bundles surrounding alpha-amyloid

 c. Senile plaque

 d. Excessive levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine

47.

Beta-amyloids are found  a. in large quantity in individuals with vascular dementia.

 b. to contribute significantly to the development of anorexia nervosa.

 c. only in clinically depressed individuals.

 d. at the core of senile plaques.

48.

Alzheimer’s disease is best described as  a. nonprogressive and incurable.

 b. progressive and incurable.

 c. progressive and curable.

 d. nonprogressive and curable.

49.

The first sign of Alzheimer’s disease is typically  a. trouble remembering recently learned verbal material.

 b. difficulty on recognition tasks.

 c. a loss of language skills.

 d. personality changes.

50.

A gene segment on the _____ chromosome has been implicated as a likely cause of late-onset Alzheimer’s disease.  a. 24th

 b. 19th

 c. 9th

 d. 14th

51.

How does the ApoE4 gene appear to contribute to the development of Alzheimer’s disease?  a. By making the brain more susceptible to damage from a blow to the head

 b. By decreasing blood flow to the prefrontal lobe

 c. Through the creation of new synapses within the brain

 d. Through an increased buildup of beta-amyloid

52.

The extra “brain power” that individuals can sometimes rely on when disease begins to take a toll on their brain functioning is referred to as  a. mirroring neurons.

 b. ruminative coping.

 c. cognitive reserve.

 d. reversed roles.

53.

Drugs like Aricept and Namenda that are currently used to treat Alzheimer’s disease tend to  a. positively impact cognitive functioning, reduce behavioral problems and slow the progression of the disease.

 b. positively impact behavioral problems but have little impact on cognitive functioning.

 c. positively impact cognitive functioning and reduce behavioral problems but do not slow the progression of the disease.

 d. have little measureable impact on behavioral or cognitive abilities.

54.

Current treatments being investigated for Alzheimer’s disease include  a. drugs to enhance the production of beta-amyloids.

 b. injections of Leva-dopa to replace levels of dopamine in the brain.

 c. antioxidants like vitamin E and C.

 d. use of stimulants like methylphenidate.

55.

What is the second most common type of dementia?  a. vascular dementia

 b. Parkinson’s disease

 c. Down syndrome

 d. Alzheimer’s disease

56.

It appears as if the same lifestyle factors that contribute to the development of _____ also increase the risk for vascular dementia.  a. Asperger syndrome

 b. cerebrovascualr disease

 c. ADHD

 d. respiratory failure

57.

Vascular dementia  a. is a slowly progressive deterioration of memory and thinking skills.

 b. results from a series of small strokes, each adding rather quickly to the observed deterioration.

 c. has a very powerful genetic basis.

 d. results from taking medications or having a poor diet and can be reversed when these problems are corrected.

58.

A key difference between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia is that vascular dementia is more strongly  a. associated with delirium.

 b. influenced by lifestyle choices.

 c. influenced by genetic factors.

 d. associated with dementia.

59.

Delirium is best defined as  a. a normal part of the aging process.

 b. incurable.

 c. another term for dementia.

 d. a reversible state of confusion and disorientation.

60.

Due to their mental slowness, elderly adults who are _____ are frequently misdiagnosed with delirium.  a. depressed

 b. autistic

 c. ADHD

 d. mentally retarded

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PSYC 421 Quiz 7

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1. Consider the following sample item on a personality test:
Instructions: Which statement describes you better?
(A) I am unhappy too much of the time.
(B) I am nervous too much of the time.
This item is an example of which type of item format?

2. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF) contains 16 factors developed through factor analysis. There is, however, controversy about the number of factors that are “really” evident in this test. According to your textbook, most theorists who argue that there are not 16 factors on the 16 PF believe that

3. According to Dr. Rick Malone, which is true about Meloy’s (2000) biopsychosocial (BPS) model?

4. The assumption that a constellation of traits and states may be used to identify a particular category of personality is inherent in

5. A woman who states as a fact that she “wears too many hats” in her daily life might BEST be characterized as

6. A key definitional difference between the terms personality trait and personality state has to do with

7. For Colonel Rick Malone, the practice of threat assessment entails, among other things, the gathering of intelligence designed to protect senior Department of Defense officials who are referred to as “principals.”

8. In the Karisoke study of gorilla personality, inter-rater reliability was found to be ________ among the ________ raters.

9. The Self-Directed Search Tests are based on six personality

10. Who typically serves as the informant when the Personality Inventory for Children II (PIC-II) is administered?

11. The MMPI-A may be criticized for its lack of

12. Rating scales may be used to

13. Which of the following BEST represents your textbook authors’ definition of personality?

14. As a result of self-monitoring her food intake a former client of Weight Watchers finds that her food intake habits have improved. This phenomenon could BEST be cited as an example of

15. The oracle-like, clinical orientation has been characterized as the third ear approach. According to your textbook, this orientation has been replaced by what might be termed

16. When interpretations about personality are derived from analysis of figure drawings

17. In 1907, an early study using pictures as projective stimuli for storytelling found differences as a function of

18. The utility of self-reports and self-monitoring is to some extent dependent on

19. In recent years, projective tests have

20. The polygraph

21. Which of the following is NOT an unobtrusive measure?

22. An early projective test used ________ as projective stimuli.

23. According to Emanuel Hammer, people project their self-image or self-concept in

24. Debate over the validity of the Rorschach has stemmed from inconclusive results of research examining

25. The use of projective tests minimizes

BUY MORE MATERIALS FOR THIS COURSE:

PSYC 421 Quiz 1

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PSYC 421 Quiz 3

PSYC 421 Quiz 4

PSYC 421 Quiz 5

PSYC 421 Quiz 6

PSYC 421 Quiz 7

PSYC 421 Exam 1

PSYC 421 Exam 2

PSYC 421 Exam 3

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Week 2: Application Assignment

Choose a case study with the primary topic of either DECISION MAKING  or DELEGATION. (See list of cases on table 3-1 in chapter 3 of your text).

Step one:  Briefly summarize the case.

Step two:  Answer the questions and or instructions at the end of the case.   (Consider the following self assessment questions in reviewing your answer:   Do my recommendations show that I fully understand the issues involved in the case?  Could my recommendations realisticaly solve the problem?  Do my recommendations appear to be as fair as possible to al parties involved?  Do my recommendations support the goals of the organization?  If this were a real world problem, could I live with my recommendations?)

Step three: Review the author’s responses for your case in the responses section of your materials.  Briefly discuss whether or not your recommendations were similar to the author’s.  Would you adjust your recommendations after seeing the author’s proposed recommendations, or would you defend your own recommendation?  Why?

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Discussion answers

Discussion question replies Week 5 D2

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The General Education Competencies are derived from the GCU Mission, and are designed to be a guide of general education skills students should gain while attending GCU.

Review Chapter 2 of University Success Guide: Finding Your Purpose and the General Education Competency list located in Topic 5 Resources. Choose which competencies you think relate best to the GCU Mission. How will these competencies lead to your success as a student and beyond?

 

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Jessica Riwu Kore

Sep 29, 2023, 3:42 PM

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I think the competencies that best relate to the Grand Canyon University mission is the christian worldview and global awareness, perspectives, and ethics. The reason why I picked christian worldview is because Grand Canyon University curriculum is derived from a faith based, biblical values. Students at Grand Canyon University learn from a different perspective rather than being at a traditional public university.  I also picked global awareness, perspectives, and ethics because based on the teachings taught at Grand Canyon University helps you have a better understanding of the world around us. We should always be putting others first before our needs. We need to be more like examples for others. I think these competencies will lead to my success as a student because these values will resonate. These are not just values you forget overtime. I will take these values and principles wherever I go; whether it is in a work setting or in a school setting. I want to set the examples for others.

 

 

April Dean

Sep 29, 2023, 2:23 PM

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The competencies that will lead to my success as a student and Beyond are effective communication, Global awareness, perspectives, and ethics. Also critical thinking and Christian worldview. I chose effective communication because I believe that communication is key both a learning environment as well as in a career. Effective communication means a lot of things to me. The most important in my opinion is listening. Not only is it necessary to be able to express ideas clearly in a verbal sense, it is also necessary to be a good listener. I chose Global awareness, perspectives, and ethics because to me this describes acceptance, open-mindedness, and understanding. All of these things are very important in My Chosen career as a counselor. Diversity and empathy are two things that I will be using daily. I chose critical thinking because I feel that as I move forward with my education critical thinking will play a huge role in my success.

 

 

Nancy Lopez

Sep 29, 2023, 7:34 AM

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I believe that all the competencies elate to the GCU mission. But the two I think are best fr academic success are critical thinking, and effective communication.   Communication, and critical thinking are both important because they will allow for a better understanding of every ones point of view and reasoning for their conclusions. and not try and push my conclusion as the right one. But tell the reasons I came to my conclusion and listen to and understand why and how they came to theirs. And both will aid me in success beyond because they are both essential in everyday life as well as careers.

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