Psycology Human Growth & Development

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Chapter : About Human Development: A Life-Span View Cover Image Book Title: Human Development: A Life-Span

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ssignment: Psy 370 Ch. 16 Assignment 1. It has been proposed that in the DMS-V, discussion on the concept of autism…

ssignment: Psy 370 Ch. 16 Assignment 1.

It has been proposed that in the DMS-V, discussion on the concept of autism  a. will be removed from the text.

 b. will remain unchanged.

 c. will be replaced with a broader category referred to as “conduct disorders of autistic type” and will drop references to linguistic problems.

 d. be discussed as a single category of “autism spectrum disorders” rather than a list that includes numerous subcategories.

2.

The “DSM” in DSM-IV refers to the  a. Direct Services Method of Psychological Intervention

 b. Diagram of Severe Mental Illnesses

 c. Doctor’s Scientific/Psychological Medical Guide

 d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

3.

In the diathesis-stress model, the term diathesis refers to a(n)  a. social norm.

 b. genetic or personality-based predisposition toward vulnerability.

 c. anxiety-producing environmental event.

 d. state of calm.

4.

According to the diathesis-stress model, psychopathology results when  a. a stressful event triggers an already existing vulnerability or predisposition.

 b. the id develops.

 c. a gene that is programmed to activate at a certain point during the lifespan “turns on” without any trigger.

 d. a mentally healthy person takes a psychoactive drug.

5.

An imbalance in _____ appears to play a role in the acquisition of major depressive disorder.  a. corpus callosum activity

 b. dopamine levels

 c. serotonin levels

 d. beta-amyloids

6.

Echolalia is best described as  a. a lack of organized speech.

 b. parroting what someone else is saying.

 c. saying socially inappropriate things.

 d. not speaking at all.

7.

Under which DSM-IV category would you find autism spectrum disorders?  a. Personality disorders

 b. Adjustment disorders

 c. Pervasive developmental disorders

 d. Dissociative disorders

8.

On the DSM-IV, Asperger syndrome would be found under the label “_____ disorders.”  a. anxiety

 b. autism spectrum

 c. personality

 d. somatoform

9.

Winne has good verbal skills and is highly intelligent, but has social relationship skills typical of an autistic child. Given this description, Winnie is most likely to be diagnosed with _____ syndrome.  a. Down

 b. Kleinfelter

 c. Turner

 d. Asperger

10.

A now retracted article by Wakefield and others claimed that autism is caused by  a. the MMR vaccine.

 b. baby formula fortified with iron.

 c. excessive infantile exposure to television and computer screens.

 d. lead poisoning.

11.

What key evidence has emerged to disprove the myth that thimerosal (a mercury-based preservative) is responsible for autism?  a. The incidence of autism has decreased significantly, but only in females who are immune the impact of thimerosal.

 b. As the amount of thimerosal in baby food has increased, the incidence of autism has decreased.

 c. The incidence of autism has climbed after thimerosal was removed from the MMR vaccine.

 d. Historically, no children with autism ever came into direct contact with thimerosal.

12.

The most likely reason for the increase in the number of children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders is that  a. in the 1990s, Asperger syndrome was removed from the DSM-IV.

 b. in the 1990s, autism was removed from the U.S. list of disabilities eligible for special education services.

 c. there is now a broader definition for what used to be just autism.

 d. the rise has corresponded with the significant increase in the number of infants born with HIV.

13.

What behavior would an infant display that would lead a competent doctor to accurately suspect the child is autistic?  a. Excessive levels of joint attention

 b. Failure to respond to human voices

 c. An obsession with playing peek-a-boo and other social games

 d. Showing a clear preference for human over nonhuman stimuli

14.

Which statement concerning the intellectual abilities of autistic individuals is most accurate?  a. The vast majority of autistics are mildly to severely mentally retarded.

 b. Autistic individuals tend to score lower higher on nonverbal than verbal measures of intelligence.

 c. More than half of children with autism score above 71 on IQ tests.

 d. The description of some individuals with autism as “savants” with special abilities in a given area (e.g., quickly calculating the days of the week corresponding to dates on a calendar) is a myth.

15.

All of the following are currently legitimate suspected causes of autism except  a. lack of a theory of mind.

 b. genetic defect.

 c. a lack of executive functions.

 d. cold, rigid parenting.

16.

Concerning genetic explanations of autism,  a. there is clear evidence that autism is solely due to the presence of a third 21st chromosome.

 b. the genes involved appear to cause a rapid deceleration of head and brain development over the course of the first three years after birth.

 c. at this point there is no evidence of any genetic basis of the disorder.

 d. many genes have been implicated including some that appear to have been copied too many times.

17.

Which brain areas have been implicated as a possible cause of the behavioral problems found in individuals with autism?  a. The hypothalamus and temporal cortex

 b. The hippocampus and parietal cortex

 c. The amygdala and frontal cortex

 d. The thalamus and the occipital cortex

18.

Mirror neurons  a. generate multiple copies of themselves, and each copy leads to an increase in dopamine levels.

 b. are very fragile, and when they “die,” they produce excessive levels of neuritic plaque.

 c. only fire when they are stimulated by other mirror neurons.

 d. allow us to relate the feelings of others to our own experiences.

19.

Executive functions are thought to take place in the _____ cortex of the brain.  a. prefrontal

 b. parietal

 c. temporal

 d. occipital

20.

According to the executive dysfunction hypothesis, autistic behavior is the result of a brain that is  a. unable to plan and change one’s course of actions.

 b. overrun with mirror neurons.

 c. too small.

 d. lacking Broca’s area.

21.

Baron-Cohen has recently suggested that the extreme _____ hypothesis may explain the cause of Asperger syndrome.  a. executive dysfunction

 b. central coherence

 c. male brain

 d. theory-of-mind

22.

According to the extreme male brain theory of autism, the key problem with individuals with autism is that they  a. are too empathetic and try too hard to keep the world orderly.

 b. are too empathetic and do not attempt to keep the world orderly.

 c. lack empathy and try too hard to keep the world orderly.

 d. lack empathy and do not attempt to keep the world orderly.

23.

Recent research has shown that the nasal administration of _____ appears to improve social information and understanding in high-functioning individuals with autism.  a. oxytocin

 b. thimerosal

 c. beta-amyloid

 d. antihistamines

24.

Which statement concerning the long-term prognosis for autistic children is true?  a. Intensive behavior modification programs have been shown to increase levels of aggressiveness and self-stimulation.

 b. Most autistics achieve a normal level of functioning when they reach adulthood.

 c. Most can be improved significantly through drug treatment.

 d. The best interventions involve intensive and highly structured behavioral and educational programs aimed at young children.

25.

Ivar Lovaas conducted pioneering research on children with autism in which he was able to use _____ to significantly improve their language and social skills.  a. mirror therapy

 b. psychoactive medications

 c. psychoanalysis

 d. reinforcement principles

26.

The most accurate statement concerning the use of behavioral and cognitive interventions with children with autism is that they  a. typically lead to significant improvements in all children, regardless of their age or level of intellect.

 b. can lead to significant gains, especially in older children who do have significant intellectual disabilities.

 c. can lead to significant gains, especially in young children who do not have severe intellectual disabilities.

 d. are virtually worthless at changing behaviors.

27.

Which is the best example of a somatic symptom in a depressed infant?  a. Failure to develop an attachment to the primary caregiver

 b. The lack of language

 c. A disrupted sleep pattern

 d. The lack of interest in playing with a toy

28.

Failure to thrive in otherwise healthy infants is usually  a. so severe that it cannot be undone.

 b. attributed to perinatal complications.

 c. misdiagnosed as autism.

 d. the result of having unaffectionate or depressed caregivers.

29.

Depression is most rare in  a. middle adulthood.

 b. young adulthood.

 c. adolescence.

 d. childhood.

30.

By definition, all individuals who are classified with comorbidity  a. are extremely close to death.

 b. possess two psychological conditions at the same time.

 c. have been negatively impacted by both genetic and environmental factors.

 d. cannot control their impulses.

31.

Children who have a depressive disorder  a. differ from adolescents and adults with depression, because children never attempt suicide while the older age groups often do.

 b. often have problems with depression as adolescents and adults.

 c. are easy to identify because they frequently talk about their negative feelings.

 d. seldom respond well to any form of psychotherapy.

32.

Research has shown that _____ treatments tend to be the most effective when treating depression in children.  a. drug

 b. parental intervention

 c. cognitive behavioral

 d. psychoanalytic

33.

Many antidepressant drugs like Prozac are selective _____ reuptake inhibitors.  a. norepinephrine

 b. dopamine

 c. serotonin

 d. GABA

34.

In 2004, the United States government issued a warning concerning the use of some antidepressant drugs and the possible increased risk of ____ in adolescence.  a. birth defects

 b. suicide

 c. addiction

 d. pregnancy

35.

Which is true with regard to psychological “health” during adolescence?  a. Few adolescents who are psychologically disturbed were maladjusted before they reached puberty.

 b. Adolescents are far more likely than adults to experience some sort of psychological disturbance.

 c. Most adolescents suffer at some point from some sort of significant psychological disturbance.

 d. Adolescence is a time of heightened vulnerability for some forms of psychological disorders.

36.

Which statement concerning adolescence is true?  a. Few adolescents engage in delinquent or risky behavior during this period of life.

 b. Adolescents have little difficulty with self-regulatory behaviors.

 c. Most adolescents cope remarkably well with the challenges of this period of life.

 d. Most adolescents experience serious psychopathology during this period of life.

37.

Anorexia nervosa literally means “nervous loss of _____.”  a. appetite

 b. control

 c. mind

 d. weight

38.

Gwen has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. Which of the following characteristics would she be least likely to possess?  a. The use of laxatives or self-vomiting to purge food

 b. A refusal to maintain body weight in spite of being in an emaciated state

 c. A feeling of being fat

 d. A tendency to consume huge quantities of foods in a single sitting

39.

According to statistics, who is most likely to commit suicide?  a. Jackson, a 25-year-old black male

 b. George, an 18-year-old black male

 c. Washington, an 80-year-old white male

 d. Andrew, a 45-year-old white male

40.

Which of the following is true with regard to adolescent suicide?  a. More males than females attempt and are successful at committing suicide.

 b. More females attempt suicide, but more males are successful at committing suicide.

 c. More females than males attempt and are successful at committing suicide.

 d. More males attempt suicide, but more females are successful at committing suicide.

41.

According to statistics, what characteristic puts a teenage at the greatest risk for committing suicide?  a. Lving in poverty

 b. Being a victim of physical abuse

 c. A homosexual orientation

 d. A history of behavioral problems

42.

Why is depression difficult to diagnose in older adults?  a. There are no diagnostic criteria for diagnosing depression in the elderly.

 b. As nearly all older depressed individuals commit suicide, there are few depressed individuals left to diagnose.

 c. Many of the diagnostic symptoms are similar to normal losses associated with aging.

 d. Normal cognitive loss associated with aging makes it hard for older people to answer questions about their mental state.

43.

Which statement concerning psychopathology in adulthood is true?  a. A major challenge in treating older individuals with depression is getting them to seek treatment.

 b. The elderly are highly likely to be overdiagnosed with depression.

 c. Treatments for depression in adulthood are highly ineffective.

 d. Depression symptoms in older adulthood are so different from young adulthood that different DSM criteria are used in its detection.

44.

Dementia is best defined as  a. an inevitable, normal change in the brain with age.

 b. a sudden loss of memory and intelligence.

 c. a one-time period of significant disorientation.

 d. a progressive loss of neural functioning.

45.

What is the most common form of dementia?  a. Down syndrome

 b. Parkinson’s disease

 c. Alzheimer’s disease

 d. Vascular dementia

46.

What brain change is best associated with Alzheimer’s disease?  a. Excessive quantities of the metal mercury

 b. Neurofibrillary bundles surrounding alpha-amyloid

 c. Senile plaque

 d. Excessive levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine

47.

Beta-amyloids are found  a. in large quantity in individuals with vascular dementia.

 b. to contribute significantly to the development of anorexia nervosa.

 c. only in clinically depressed individuals.

 d. at the core of senile plaques.

48.

Alzheimer’s disease is best described as  a. nonprogressive and incurable.

 b. progressive and incurable.

 c. progressive and curable.

 d. nonprogressive and curable.

49.

The first sign of Alzheimer’s disease is typically  a. trouble remembering recently learned verbal material.

 b. difficulty on recognition tasks.

 c. a loss of language skills.

 d. personality changes.

50.

A gene segment on the _____ chromosome has been implicated as a likely cause of late-onset Alzheimer’s disease.  a. 24th

 b. 19th

 c. 9th

 d. 14th

51.

How does the ApoE4 gene appear to contribute to the development of Alzheimer’s disease?  a. By making the brain more susceptible to damage from a blow to the head

 b. By decreasing blood flow to the prefrontal lobe

 c. Through the creation of new synapses within the brain

 d. Through an increased buildup of beta-amyloid

52.

The extra “brain power” that individuals can sometimes rely on when disease begins to take a toll on their brain functioning is referred to as  a. mirroring neurons.

 b. ruminative coping.

 c. cognitive reserve.

 d. reversed roles.

53.

Drugs like Aricept and Namenda that are currently used to treat Alzheimer’s disease tend to  a. positively impact cognitive functioning, reduce behavioral problems and slow the progression of the disease.

 b. positively impact behavioral problems but have little impact on cognitive functioning.

 c. positively impact cognitive functioning and reduce behavioral problems but do not slow the progression of the disease.

 d. have little measureable impact on behavioral or cognitive abilities.

54.

Current treatments being investigated for Alzheimer’s disease include  a. drugs to enhance the production of beta-amyloids.

 b. injections of Leva-dopa to replace levels of dopamine in the brain.

 c. antioxidants like vitamin E and C.

 d. use of stimulants like methylphenidate.

55.

What is the second most common type of dementia?  a. vascular dementia

 b. Parkinson’s disease

 c. Down syndrome

 d. Alzheimer’s disease

56.

It appears as if the same lifestyle factors that contribute to the development of _____ also increase the risk for vascular dementia.  a. Asperger syndrome

 b. cerebrovascualr disease

 c. ADHD

 d. respiratory failure

57.

Vascular dementia  a. is a slowly progressive deterioration of memory and thinking skills.

 b. results from a series of small strokes, each adding rather quickly to the observed deterioration.

 c. has a very powerful genetic basis.

 d. results from taking medications or having a poor diet and can be reversed when these problems are corrected.

58.

A key difference between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia is that vascular dementia is more strongly  a. associated with delirium.

 b. influenced by lifestyle choices.

 c. influenced by genetic factors.

 d. associated with dementia.

59.

Delirium is best defined as  a. a normal part of the aging process.

 b. incurable.

 c. another term for dementia.

 d. a reversible state of confusion and disorientation.

60.

Due to their mental slowness, elderly adults who are _____ are frequently misdiagnosed with delirium.  a. depressed

 b. autistic

 c. ADHD

 d. mentally retarded

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PSYC 421 Quiz 7

IMPORTANT: AFTER PURCHASE, LOG IN TO YOUR ACCOUNT AND SCROLL DOWN BELOW THIS PAGE TO DOWNLOAD FILES WITH ANSWERS.

1. Consider the following sample item on a personality test:
Instructions: Which statement describes you better?
(A) I am unhappy too much of the time.
(B) I am nervous too much of the time.
This item is an example of which type of item format?

2. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF) contains 16 factors developed through factor analysis. There is, however, controversy about the number of factors that are “really” evident in this test. According to your textbook, most theorists who argue that there are not 16 factors on the 16 PF believe that

3. According to Dr. Rick Malone, which is true about Meloy’s (2000) biopsychosocial (BPS) model?

4. The assumption that a constellation of traits and states may be used to identify a particular category of personality is inherent in

5. A woman who states as a fact that she “wears too many hats” in her daily life might BEST be characterized as

6. A key definitional difference between the terms personality trait and personality state has to do with

7. For Colonel Rick Malone, the practice of threat assessment entails, among other things, the gathering of intelligence designed to protect senior Department of Defense officials who are referred to as “principals.”

8. In the Karisoke study of gorilla personality, inter-rater reliability was found to be ________ among the ________ raters.

9. The Self-Directed Search Tests are based on six personality

10. Who typically serves as the informant when the Personality Inventory for Children II (PIC-II) is administered?

11. The MMPI-A may be criticized for its lack of

12. Rating scales may be used to

13. Which of the following BEST represents your textbook authors’ definition of personality?

14. As a result of self-monitoring her food intake a former client of Weight Watchers finds that her food intake habits have improved. This phenomenon could BEST be cited as an example of

15. The oracle-like, clinical orientation has been characterized as the third ear approach. According to your textbook, this orientation has been replaced by what might be termed

16. When interpretations about personality are derived from analysis of figure drawings

17. In 1907, an early study using pictures as projective stimuli for storytelling found differences as a function of

18. The utility of self-reports and self-monitoring is to some extent dependent on

19. In recent years, projective tests have

20. The polygraph

21. Which of the following is NOT an unobtrusive measure?

22. An early projective test used ________ as projective stimuli.

23. According to Emanuel Hammer, people project their self-image or self-concept in

24. Debate over the validity of the Rorschach has stemmed from inconclusive results of research examining

25. The use of projective tests minimizes

BUY MORE MATERIALS FOR THIS COURSE:

PSYC 421 Quiz 1

PSYC 421 Quiz 2

PSYC 421 Quiz 3

PSYC 421 Quiz 4

PSYC 421 Quiz 5

PSYC 421 Quiz 6

PSYC 421 Quiz 7

PSYC 421 Exam 1

PSYC 421 Exam 2

PSYC 421 Exam 3

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Week 2: Application Assignment

Choose a case study with the primary topic of either DECISION MAKING  or DELEGATION. (See list of cases on table 3-1 in chapter 3 of your text).

Step one:  Briefly summarize the case.

Step two:  Answer the questions and or instructions at the end of the case.   (Consider the following self assessment questions in reviewing your answer:   Do my recommendations show that I fully understand the issues involved in the case?  Could my recommendations realisticaly solve the problem?  Do my recommendations appear to be as fair as possible to al parties involved?  Do my recommendations support the goals of the organization?  If this were a real world problem, could I live with my recommendations?)

Step three: Review the author’s responses for your case in the responses section of your materials.  Briefly discuss whether or not your recommendations were similar to the author’s.  Would you adjust your recommendations after seeing the author’s proposed recommendations, or would you defend your own recommendation?  Why?

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Discussion answers

Discussion question replies Week 5 D2

Discussion question below:

This question is already answered

The General Education Competencies are derived from the GCU Mission, and are designed to be a guide of general education skills students should gain while attending GCU.

Review Chapter 2 of University Success Guide: Finding Your Purpose and the General Education Competency list located in Topic 5 Resources. Choose which competencies you think relate best to the GCU Mission. How will these competencies lead to your success as a student and beyond?

 

Respond to your classmates:

Jessica Riwu Kore

Sep 29, 2023, 3:42 PM

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I think the competencies that best relate to the Grand Canyon University mission is the christian worldview and global awareness, perspectives, and ethics. The reason why I picked christian worldview is because Grand Canyon University curriculum is derived from a faith based, biblical values. Students at Grand Canyon University learn from a different perspective rather than being at a traditional public university.  I also picked global awareness, perspectives, and ethics because based on the teachings taught at Grand Canyon University helps you have a better understanding of the world around us. We should always be putting others first before our needs. We need to be more like examples for others. I think these competencies will lead to my success as a student because these values will resonate. These are not just values you forget overtime. I will take these values and principles wherever I go; whether it is in a work setting or in a school setting. I want to set the examples for others.

 

 

April Dean

Sep 29, 2023, 2:23 PM

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The competencies that will lead to my success as a student and Beyond are effective communication, Global awareness, perspectives, and ethics. Also critical thinking and Christian worldview. I chose effective communication because I believe that communication is key both a learning environment as well as in a career. Effective communication means a lot of things to me. The most important in my opinion is listening. Not only is it necessary to be able to express ideas clearly in a verbal sense, it is also necessary to be a good listener. I chose Global awareness, perspectives, and ethics because to me this describes acceptance, open-mindedness, and understanding. All of these things are very important in My Chosen career as a counselor. Diversity and empathy are two things that I will be using daily. I chose critical thinking because I feel that as I move forward with my education critical thinking will play a huge role in my success.

 

 

Nancy Lopez

Sep 29, 2023, 7:34 AM

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I believe that all the competencies elate to the GCU mission. But the two I think are best fr academic success are critical thinking, and effective communication.   Communication, and critical thinking are both important because they will allow for a better understanding of every ones point of view and reasoning for their conclusions. and not try and push my conclusion as the right one. But tell the reasons I came to my conclusion and listen to and understand why and how they came to theirs. And both will aid me in success beyond because they are both essential in everyday life as well as careers.

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Strong Interest Inventory Literature Review

Only professional quality work wanted! Must have access to scholarly resources. Must be an APA format. No grammatical errors or you will receive a bad review! Please be on time. Contact me if you need examples.

 

 

 

 

 

 

PSY 550: Final Project Guidelines and Grading Guide

Overview

The final project for this course is the creation of an evaluative, comprehensive literature review. You will select a psychological measure or test. Ideally, the test should be one you see yourself using in the field of Industrial Organizational Psychology, that has been used to assess a diagnosis of interest, or that has been used in a population on which you plan  to focus. You will evaluate the test using research in peer-reviewed psychology journals to substantiate claims about its validity, reliability, applications, and implications.

-must have 8 references from a scholarly article

Measurement: The Strong Interest Inventory

Prompt

Your literature review should answer the following prompt: What is the overall appropriateness and practical value of your selected psychological assessment measure?

Specifically, the following critical elements must be addressed (Must answer these questions):

I. Background of the test

a. What is the purpose of the test?

b. What type of test is it? What type of information does it yield?

c. How is it administered and scored? Who publishes the results?

d. For whom is this test intended? Who else has utilized this test?

 

II. Assessment of the test

a. To what extent does the test employ appropriate psychometric principles?

b. To what extent has the reliability and validity of the test been demonstrated for varying populations?

c. What are the cut scores for “normal” versus “at-risk” and/or “clinically significant”? Is the method for interpreting andcommunicating the results (e.g., scaled scores, percentile ranks, z-scores, t-scores) appropriate?

d. Are there any specific cultural concerns that should be attended to? To what extent do cultural and environmental factors for minorities or special populations impact the effectiveness of the measure?e. To what extent are there ethical issues related to the use, administration, and interpretation of this measure?

 

III. Practical applications of the test

a. Under what circumstances would you give this test? Provide example scenarios in which the test would be helpful to another mental

health professional, parent, teacher, student, individual, court, business, or other profession?

b. For what purposes and with what clients would you not consider it useful? What are the limitations of this test?

c. What issues must you attend to carefully in order to present the test results accurately (e.g., not over- or under-interpret their

significance) and ethically?

d. What strategies would you use to help you or your client make decisions resulting from an assessment (e.g., pairing results with

 

other kinds of information)?

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Intro to statistics for Psychology

Intro to statistics for Psychology

 

Attached are several problems. ONly need circles ones

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VPSY 520 SPSS Assignment 3 Before you begin the assignment: • Read Chapter 14 in your Discovering Statistics Using IBM SPSS Statistics textbook. • Review the video tutorial for an overview of conducting repeated measures analyses in SPSS. • Download and o

PSY 520 SPSS Assignment 3

 

 

 

Before you begin the assignment:

 

 

 

·         Read Chapter 14 in your Discovering Statistics Using IBM SPSS Statistics textbook.

 

·         Review the video tutorial for an overview of conducting repeated measures analyses in SPSS.

 

·         Download and open the Snake Anxiety SPSS data set.

 

 

 

An overview of the data set:

 

 

 

This data set represents hypothetical data from a study that examined the level of anxiety that people with a snake phobia felt in three different scenarios. The same people were tested in each scenario. That is, each person experienced all three conditions.

 

 

 

Here is some more information about the variables in this hypothetical data set:

 

 

 

·         Number: This is the ID number of the participant

 

·         See_Distance: This is participants’ anxiety (scores could range from 40 to 100, with high numbers indicating higher anxiety) when they saw a large snake that was about 20 feet away.

 

·         See_Close: This is participants’ anxiety (scores could range from 40 to 100, with high numbers indicating higher anxiety) when they saw a large snake that was about 5 feet away.

 

·         Touch: This is participants’ anxiety (scores could range from 40 to 100, with high numbers indicating higher anxiety) when they touched a large snake.

 

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quiz

Week Three Review

ThinkstockPhotos-478995453.jpg

Reviews can be useful because they allow you to evaluate your learning of the material.  This review assesses your understanding of the topics covered in Week Three.  The review contains 30 multiple-choice questions and is worth 6% of your course grade.  Select the best possible answer for each question.  You will be allowed 60 minutes to complete the review.  Once you open the review, you must finish it in one sitting.  You may take the review as many times as you like, until you are satisfied with your score.  Read the required resources and review the Instructor Guidance prior to taking the review.

Note: this is a timed quiz. You may check the remaining time you have at any point while taking the quiz by pressing the keyboard combination SHIFT, ALT, and T… Again: SHIFT, ALT, and T…

 

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Answer questions about “Footloose” movie

Most of the differences between the two versions of the movies don’t make much difference.  However, in the 2011 movie please respond to the question asking about Ren’s mother, by describing the parenting style of his Aunt.  Otherwise, some of the specific examples differ, but you should be able to answer all of the questions.

“Footlosse” Project After reading over these questions, watch the movie “Footloose.” You can watch the original 1984 version, or the 2011 remake. The movie is available on YouTube, Google Play, iTunes, Amazon Prime, etc.

Answer 10 of the following questions. Each question is worth 3.5 points. It is very important that you provide the justification for your responses when the question requests a justification. Your answers will probably vary from question to question, but on average, half page answers should be sufficient. 1. What perspective or definition of adolescence is best portrayed in the movie? Provide evidence and

your rationale. (introduction of textbook) 2. Identify a character who appears to have matured early and a character who matured late. Name and

describe the two characters (especially if they were not central characters) and provide the rationale for why you believe he or she matured early or late. (Chapter 1)

3. Identify at least two examples of formal operational thought. For each, provide a description of the

scene or event and provide a justification for why you think it is an illustration of formal operational thought. (Chapter 2)

4. Identify at least two examples of personal fable or imaginary audience in the movie. For each, (1)

provide a description of the scene or event, (2) state whether you think it illustrates the personal fable or the imaginary audience, and (3) provide a justification for why you think so. (chapter 2)

5. There are a number of examples of behavior that may be viewed as attempts to define one’s identity.

Identify two and provide the rationale for why you think the behavior is an attempt to identify one’s identity. (chapter 8)

6. How would Baumrind classify the parenting style used by the male lead character’s mother? The

female lead character’s father? For each, provide evidence to support your conclusion. (Chapter 4) 7. The parents of both main characters engage in autonomy granting behaviors, but do so in a very

different way. Contrast how the male lead’s mother goes about granting him autonomy with the approach taken by the female lead’s father. (chapter 9)

8. Identify at least two examples of peer pressure. For each, provide a description of the scene or event,

provide a justification for why you think there was peer pressure, and identify how the pressure was conveyed (was it verbal, imagined, etc.). (chapters 5 and 9)

9. Identify at least two pieces of evidence of peer group structure in the movie. What does the evidence

tell you about the structure of the peer groups in that town/school? (chapter 5) 10. Identify a theme that captures how adolescent sexuality is portrayed in the movie and provide evidence

that supports your theme choice. (chapter 11) 11. Identify at least 3 scenes addressing intimacy and intimacy development in relationships and explain

why the scene accurately or inaccurately depicts intimacy development. You must include at least one example of intimacy in a romantic context, and at least one in a friendship context. (chapter 10)

 

 

12. Several characters in the movie engage in problem behavior. Identify at least three examples of

different types of problem behavior exhibited by the characters. For each, discuss key causes and consequences of the behavior (embedded within the movie plot, if possible, but you are not limited to the plot for discussion of potential causes and consequences. (chapter 13)

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