Complete the following exercises located at the end of each chapter and put them into a Word document to be submitted as directed by the instructor.

Show all relevant work; use the equation editor in Microsoft Word when necessary.

1. Chapter 5, numbers 5.11, 5.13, 5.15, and 5.18

2. Chapter 8, numbers 8.10, 8.14, 8.16, 8.19, and 8.21

 

5.11 Scores on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) approximate a normal curve with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. What proportion of IQ scores are

(a) above Kristen’s 125?

(b) below 82?

(c) within 9 points of the mean?

(d) more than 40 points from the mean?

 

5.13 IQ scores on the WAIS test approximate a normal curve with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. What IQ score is identified with

(a) the upper 2 percent, that is, 2 percent to the right (and 98 percent to the left)?

(b) the lower 10 percent?

(c) the upper 60 percent?

(d) the middle 95 percent? [Remember, the middle 95 percent straddles the line perpendicular to the mean (or the 50th percentile), with half of 95 percent, or 47.5 percent, above this line and the remaining 47.5 percent below this line.]

(e) the middle 99 percent?

 

IMPORTANT NOTE: When doing Questions 5.15 and 5.16, remember to decide first whether a proportion or a score is to be found.

*5. 15 An investigator polls common cold sufferers, asking them to estimate the number of hours of physical discomfort caused by their most recent colds. Assume that their estimates approximate a normal curve with a mean of 83 hours and a standard deviation of 20 hours.

(a) What is the estimated number of hours for the shortest-suffering 5 percent?

(b) What proportion of sufferers estimate that their colds lasted longer than 48 hours?

(c) What proportion suffered for fewer than 61 hours?

(d) What is the estimated number of hours suffered by the extreme 1 percent either above or below the mean?

(e) What proportion suffered for between 1 and 3 days, that is, between 24 and 72 hours?

(f) What is the estimated number of hours suffered by the middle 95 percent? [See the comment about “middle 95 percent” in Question 5.13(d).]

(g) What proportion suffered for between 2 and 4 days?

(h) A medical researcher wishes to concentrate on the 20 percent who suffered the most. She will work only with those who estimate that they suffered for more than ——— hours.

(i) Another researcher wishes to compare those who suffered least with those who suffered most. If each group is to consist of only the extreme 3 percent, the mild group will consist of those who suffered for fewer than _____ hours, and the severe group will consist of those who suffered for more than _____ hours.

(j) Another survey found that people with colds who took daily doses of vitamin C suffered, on the average, for 61 hours. What proportion of the original survey (with a mean of 83 hours and a standard deviation of 20 hours) suffered for more than 61 hours?

(k) What proportion of the original survey suffered for exactly 61 hours? (Be careful!)

 

*5.18 The body mass index (BMI) measures body size in people by dividing weight (in pounds) by the square of height (in inches) and then multiplying by a factor of 703. A BMI less than 18.5 is defined as underweight; between 18.5 to 24.9 is normal; between 25 and 29.9 is overweight; and 30 or more is obese. It is well established that Americans have become heavier during the last half century. Assume that the positively skewed distribution of BMIs for adult American males has a mean of 28 with a standard deviation of 4.

(a) Would the median BMI score exceed, equal, or be exceeded by the mean BMI score of 28?

(b) What z score defines overweight

(c) What z score defines obese

 

8.10 Television stations sometimes solicit feedback volunteered by viewers about a tele-vised event. Following a televised debate between Barack Obama and Mitt Romney in the 2012 presidential election campaign, a TV station conducted a telephone poll to determine the “winner.” Callers were given two phone numbers, one for Obama and the other for Romney, to register their opinions automatically.

(a) Comment on whether or not this was a random sample.

(b) How might this poll have been improved?

 

*8.14 The probability of a boy being born equals .50, or 1/2, as does the probability of a girl being born. For a randomly selected family with two children, what’s the probability of

(a) two boys, that is, a boy and a boy? (Reminder: Before using either the addition or multiplication rule, satisfy yourself that the various events are either mutually exclu-sive or independent, respectively.)

(b) two girls?

(c) either two boys or two girls?

 

8.16 A traditional test for extrasensory perception (ESP) involves a set of playing cards, each of which shows a different symbol (circle, square, cross, star, or wavy lines). If C represents a correct guess and I an incorrect guess, what is the probability of

(a) C?

(b) CI (in that order) for two guesses?

(c) CCC for three guesses?

(d) III for three guesses?

 

8.19 A sensor is used to monitor the performance of a nuclear reactor. The sensor accurately reflects the state of the reactor with a probability of .97. But with a probability of .02, it gives a false alarm (by reporting excessive radiation even though the reactor is performing normally), and with a probability of .01, it misses excessive radiation (by failing to report excessive radiation even though the reactor is performing abnormally).

(a) What is the probability that a sensor will give an incorrect report, that is, either a false alarm or a miss?

(b) To reduce costly shutdowns caused by false alarms, management introduces a second completely independent sensor, and the reactor is shut down only when both sensors report excessive radiation. (According to this perspective, solitary reports of excessive radiation should be viewed as false alarms and ignored, since both sensors provide accurate information much of the time.) What is the new probability that the reactor will be shut down because of simultaneous false alarms by both the first and second sensors?

(c) Being more concerned about failures to detect excessive radiation, someone who lives near the nuclear reactor proposes an entirely different strategy: Shut down the reactor whenever either sensor reports excessive radiation. (According to this point of view, even a solitary report of excessive radiation should trigger a shutdown, since a failure to detect excessive radiation is potentially catastrophic.) If this policy were adopted, what is the new probability that excessive radiation will be missed simultaneously by both the first and second sensors?

 

*8.21 Assume that the probability of breast cancer equals .01 for women in the 50–59 age group. Furthermore, if a woman does have breast cancer, the probability of a true positive mammogram (correct detection of breast cancer) equals .80 and the probability of a false negative mammogram (a miss) equals .20. On the other hand, if a woman does not have breast cancer, the probability of a true negative mammogram (correct nondetection) equals .90 and the probability of a false positive mammogram (a false alarm) equals .10. (Hint: Use a frequency analysis to answer questions. To facilitate checking your answers with those in the book, begin with a total of 1,000 women, then branch into the number of women who do or do not have breast cancer, and finally, under each of these numbers, branch into the number of women with positive and negative mammograms.)

(a) What is the probability that a randomly selected woman will have a positive mammogram?

(b) What is the probability of having breast cancer, given a positive mammogram?

(c) What is the probability of not having breast cancer, given a negative mammogram?

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Sigmund Freud Case Study

QUESTIONS

1. Does the Freudian perspective indicate that Steve’s relationships with women are internally or externally motivated?

 

2. According to Freud, which state of consciousness is most involved in controlling Steve’s behavior?

 

3. Which component (id, ego, superego) of the personality structure is most involved in determining Steve’s behavior? Give an example(s) to support your answer.

 

4. At which stage of psychosexual development is Steve most likely fixated? Give an example(s) to support your answer.

 

CASE STUDY

Steve is sitting at a restaurant table waiting for his date to come bac from the restroom, As he waits, he imagines what the rest of the evening will be like. The restaurant they are eating at is one of those little Italian places with red-and-white checkered tablecloths and candles in Chianti bottles. A violin player strolls around the tables playing romantic music. Steve considers that these types of restaurants always work well for him. His date would be charmed by the atmosphere and begin to feel romantic. This would allow Steve to make his move, and typically, he and his date would end up at either his apartment or hers for a night of great sex.

Steve is 38, of Italian-American descent, and single: a bachelor by choice, but his friends worry about his happiness. They wonder if Steve is unable to form a long-term relationship, that he has a fear of commitment and an addiction to sex and the passion that marks the beginning of relationships. They also wonder whether Steve’s strained relationship with his mother is at least partly to blame for his behavior. Steve’s mother, while caring for his physical needs, was not openly affectionate and did not give Steve the demonstrative affection and loving interaction he craved. They wonder if his anger toward her and her negligent behavior toward Steve is being manifested as anger toward women in general.

Steve has been a flirt ever since puberty. In high school, he had a reputation for insincerity. Girls were attracted to him; he was handsome and spent a lot of time and money on his appearance. Unbeknownst to his friends, however, Steve secretly feared that he was unattractive, so he did what he could to improve his looks.

The girls he asked out always had a good time on their dates, but it soon became known that he would always pressure his dates for sex and, in many cases, tell them that he loved them to convince them to have sex. He was also rumored to have made one girl pregnant and then claimed that it was not his child. To his close male friends, he said that she was not going to tie him down, that “there were too many women and not enough time.” This pattern of relationships continued during college. He would date women, have sex with them a few times, and then break off the relationship. He estimated that by the time he was 21, he had sex with about eight dozen women. He bragged about this among his male friends.

After college, and through the present time, Steve also continued to form relationships with women that were based on sexual attraction and nothing more substantial. One by one, he watched his male friends settle down and commit to one woman. Every time this happened, he would express astonishment and disbelief, stating that his friends were being duped and that no one would make him live with one woman for the rest of his life. When women agreed to go out with him or go to bed with him, Steve felt attractive, and no one was going to take that away from him. In fact, Steve secretly feared that no woman would find him attractive enough to marry. He believed that these women went out with him initially to get a free meal and would soon want to break up with him when someone better came around. So, he broke up with them first.

His friends believed that Steve’s latest sexual interest, Diane, would be the one he would marry. She seemed to be all that any man could hope for. She was pretty, smart, caring, and had a good sense of humor. Steve had been dating her for a longer time than he typically dated women, and his friends thought that he was finally growing up and settling down. As it turns out, the relationship lasted longer than usual because she was reluctant to have sex with him. She finally did after a couple of months when she was convinced that Steve really loved her and was not just using her for sex. Unfortunately, Diane should have trusted her initial instincts. Steve broke up with her after they had sex on three different occasions.

His present date was a woman he met at the gym where he worked out. She was very attractive, with a great body. He used to date women he met at work, but after someone accused him of sexual harassment, he decided to no longer date women from work. He was angered by the specific accusation and the hype associated with sexual harassment in general. A man just couldn’t follow his instincts anymore without the possibility of losing his job. At least he could still meet women at other places.

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PSY 520 SPSS Assignment 1

Before you begin the assignment:

• Read Chapter 8 in your Discovering Statistics Using IBM SPSS Statistics textbook.

• Review the video tutorial for an overview of conducting multiple regression in SPSS.

• Download and open the Popularity SPSS data set.

An overview of the data set:

This data set represents hypothetical data from a study that examined how well some core personality traits predict a person’s level of popularity. Personality was measured using the “Big 5,” which is a very commonly used measure of personality. In fact, a Big 5 personality scale was included in the Module Two discussion.

Here is some more information about the variables in this hypothetical data set:

• Number: This is the ID number of the participant

• Sex: Participants’ sex, with “1” standing for male and “2” standing for female

• Age: College year of the participant, with “1” standing for freshman, “2” standing for sophomore, etc.

• Popularity: Popularity measured with a questionnaire that could range from 0 to 100, with higher numbers indicating more popularity

• Extroversion: A Big 5 trait indicating level of sociability. Scores range from 1 to 5, with high numbers indicating extroverted and low numbers indicating introverted

• Agreeableness: A Big 5 trait indicating level of interpersonal warmth and friendliness. Scores range from 1 to 5, with high numbers indicating warmth and low numbers indicating coldness towards others

• Conscientiousness: A Big 5 trait indicating level of self-control and responsibility. Scores range from 1 to 5, with high numbers indicating high conscientiousness and low numbers indicating low conscientiousness

• Neuroticism: A Big 5 trait indicating level of anxiety and emotional stability. Scores range from 1 to 5, with high numbers indicating high neuroticism and low numbers indicating low neuroticism

• Openness: A Big 5 trait indicating level of willingness to try new things and creativity. Scores range from 1 to 5, with high numbers indicating high open-mindedness and low numbers indicating closed-mindedness

Questions:

1) Describe in your own words what type of research situations call for a researcher to use a multiple regression analysis.

Type answer below:

2a) Run a basic correlation of matrix for the Popularity, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness variables.

Paste output below (Read carefully: The best way to do this is to select “Copy Special” when copying from the SPSS output. Then select image as a format to copy. When pasting in Word, select Paste Special, choose a picture format, and then resize the image so it fits the screen):

2b) Based on these results, which personality variables are significantly correlated with Popularity?

Type answer below:

3a) Conduct a multiple regression analysis using Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness as predictors of Popularity.

Paste the output below:

3b) Which variables are significant predictors of Popularity? Compare and contrast the results from the multiple regression analysis to the basic correlation results from question 2b.

Type your answer below:

3c) What is the R-squared of this model, and what does it tell us about how well this model predicts Popularity?

Type your answer below:

3d) Write the results of the multiple regression in APA style. For help, refer to the Regression section in this document.

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Item Development and Analysis Worksheet

 

 

 

 

 

Student Name:                                                                        Section:   PSYC421-

 

 

 

 

 

PART 1: Writing Multiple Choice Test Items

 

 

 

Develop one multiple choice question that covers content from each of the four chapters listed below.  When writing your sample questions, please keep in mind the specifications regarding item construction discussed in the textbook.  Also, remember the importance of carefully crafted distractor options.  Finally, please limit the number of response options to 4 (1 correct response and 3 distractors), and avoid the options of “all of the above,” none of the above,” or the like.  Be sure to indicate which of the response options is the correct one.

Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Question (2.5 points)

 

An estimate of the relaibility of a speed test is a measure of ?

 

A) the consistancy of flood

 

B) the consistancy of response

 

C) the consistancy of the response speed

 

D) the consistancy of the response of intensity

 

Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Question (2.5 points)

 

 

Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Question (2.5 points)

 

Chapter 6 Multiple Choice Question (2.5 points)

 

PART 2: Item Analysis: Item Difficulty Index(Cohen et al., 2013, pg. 263)

A test is only as good as its questions!  When researchers, test constructors, and educators create items for ability or achievement tests, we have a responsibility to evaluate the items and make sure that they are useful and high-quality.  The process that we use to evaluate test items is known as Item Analysis.  When bad items are identified and eliminated from a test, that increases the efficiency, reliability and validity of the entire test!    One way that we can distinguish among good and bad items is with the Item Difficulty Index.

 

Part 2A: Calculating Item Difficulty

 

Using the data below, calculate the Item Difficulty Index for the first 6 items onQuiz 1 from a recent section of PSYC101.  For each item, “1” means the item was answered correctly and “0” means it was answered incorrectly. Type your answers in the spaces provided at the bottom of the table. (1 pt. each)

 

PSYC101 Quiz 1 Item Distribution and Total Scores
Examinee	Item 1	Item 2	Item 3	Item 4	Item 5	Item 6	Total Score
Andre	1	1	1	1	1	1	16
Allison	1	1	1	1	0	0	7
Heather	1	1	1	1	0	0	10
Corey	1	1	0	1	1	1	17
Christina	0	0	1	1	0	1	3
Jeffrey	0	1	1	1	0	0	11
Shawn	1	1	1	1	0	1	14
Dana	0	0	1	1	0	1	10
Megan	1	1	1	1	0	1	13
David	0	1	1	1	0	1	12
Isabel	0	0	0	1	0	0	4
Lance	1	1	1	1	0	0	9
Aliyah	1	1	1	1	0	1	15
Blaire	0	1	1	1	0	1	12
Gabriel	0	0	1	1	0	0	6
Item Difficulty	53.333	73.333	86.667	100	13.333	60

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Part 2B: Calculating Optimal Item Difficulty (.5 pt. each)

 

 

 

1.      For a test item with two response options (e.g., true/false), what is the probability of selecting the correct answer by chance?

 

%

 

 

 

2.      Calculate the optimum level of difficulty for a test questions with two response options.

 

%

 

 

 

3.      For a test item with three response options, what is the probability of selecting the correct answer by chance?

 

%

 

 

 

4.      Calculate the optimum level of difficulty for a test questions with three response options.

 

%

 

 

 

5.      For a test item with four response options, what is the probability of selecting the correct answer by chance?

 

%

 

 

 

6.      Calculate the optimum level of difficulty for a test questions with four response options.

 

%

 

 

 

7.      For a test item with five response options, what is the probability of selecting the correct answer by chance?

 

%

 

 

 

8.      Calculate the optimum level of difficulty for a test questions with five response options.

 

%

 

 

 

 

 

PART 3: Item Analysis: Item Discrimination Index(Cohen et al., 2013, pg. 265–266)

 

 

 

Another way that test creators can distinguish between good and bad items is with an analysis called the Discrimination Index.  The discrimination index measures how well an individual test item distinguishes between high scorers and low scores on the test.  An item is considered to be “good” if most of the high scorers get it right, and most of the low scorers get it wrong.

 

 

 

Interpreting the Discrimination Index (d)

 

·         The discrimination index can range from -1.0 to 1.0.

 

·         The closer d is to 1.0, the better the item discriminates between high and low scorers

 

·         The closer d is to 0, the more poorly the item discriminates between high and low scorers.

 

·         An item with a negative discrimination index is considered a “negative discriminator” because more low scorers get the item correct than high scorers.

 

·         A discrimination index of 1.0 means all the high scorers got the item correct and all of the low scorers got it incorrect.

 

·         A discrimination index of -1.0 means all of the low scorers got the item correct and all of the high scorers got it incorrect.

 

·         Items with d’s close to 0 or with negative d’s ought to be eliminated from the test!

 

Calculating the Item Discrimination Index (d)

 

 

 

Calculate the item discrimination index (d) for the 7 hypothetical test items presented below.  Type your answers in the spaces provided at the right of the table (1 pt. each).

 

 

 

Item #	U	L	n	d
Item 1	21	17	25
Item 2	23	7	25
Item 3	25	0	25
Item 4	3	24	25
Item 5	22	3	25
Item 6	0	25	25
Item 7	19	6	25

 

 

 

 

 

Based on your calculations above, answer the following questions (1 pt. each).

 

 

 

1.      Which item discriminates the best?

 

 

 

2.      Which item discriminates most poorly?

 

 

 

3.      Based on your analysis, identify which two items would you choose to eliminate from this test and explain why you would eliminate each.

 

 

 

 

 

Part 4: Item Characteristic Curves (Cohen et al., pg. 268–270)

 

 

 

Another method that test creators can use to assess the usefulness of test items is with Item Characteristic Curves.  Item characteristic curves provide a graphical depiction of examinees’ performance on individual test items.  As indicated in the figure below, Total Test Score is plotted on the x-axis of the curve, while proportion of examinees who got the item correct is plotted on the y-axis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Using the figure above, provide a written description of how test items A–D discriminate among examinees at various levels of performance.  In your responses, discuss why each item would be considered a “good” or a “bad” item.  EXAMPLE: “This item discriminates well among high scores, but doesn’t discriminate well among low scorers.  So this item would be considered a good item because it discriminates at the highest levels of performance.” (2 pt. each)

 

 

 

Item A:

 

 

 

Item B:

 

 

 

Item C:

 

 

 

Item D:

 

 

 

Item E:

 

 

 

 

 

Part 5: Qualitative Item Analysis (Cohen et al., pg. 272–274)

 

 

 

Qualitative item analysis refers to a set of non-statistical procedures used to gather information about the usefulness of test items.  These analyses typically involve interviews, panel discussions, questionnaires and other forms of verbal exchange with test-takers to explore how individual test items work.

 

 

 

As an online student, you have a very different test-taking experience than residential students.  Based on your readings from Chapter 8, identify 4 topics related to online test taking, and create 4 qualitative questions that you could ask online test-takers to gain an understanding of their experiences with test-taking.  Also, as students at a Christian institution of higher education, course assignments/assessments are supposed to give students an opportunity to integrate course content with their Christian worldview.  Given the topic of faith and learning, create one qualitative question that you could ask test-takers.

 

 

Qualitative Item Analysis
Topic (1 pt. each)	Sample Question for Test-Takers (1 pt. each)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Assignment Scoring

 

 

 

Part 1 Subtotal:

 

 

 

Part 2 Subtotal:

 

Part 3 Subtotal:

 

Part 4 Subtotal:

 

Part 5 Subtotal:

 

TOTAL SCORE: 

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Just give the answer A,B,C and D. Dont need to explain.

Unit 2 Test Question Pool

Directions: Choose the BEST answer from among the four answer options.

Chapter 4

1. According to the cosmology of atomism (HINT: see pages 47-48, and 51 of chapter 4!) A)  nothing is created out of nothing, nor can something be reduced to nothing. B)  compounds of atoms are eternal because the atoms that comprise them are eternal. C)  some things are created out of nothing, and some things can be reduced to nothing. D)  nothing is created out of nothing, and everything can be reduced to nothing.

2. Death, according to Epicurus, (HINT: see pages 48 and 52 of chapter 4!) A)  is either a dreamless sleep or a journey to another world. B)  is deprivation of sensation. C)  is a journey to another world D)  remains a mystery to us.

3. If the fundamental claims of atomism are true, then A)  the cosmos is devoid of spiritual or incorporeal beings. B)  the only truly divine things are the eternal, indestructible atoms. C)  there is no afterlife. D)  All of the above.

4. If “the impious man is not he who denies the gods of the many, but he who attaches to the gods the beliefs of the many,” then (HINT: see pages 48-49, 53-54!) A)  believers in personal immortality and divine providence are impious. B)  believers in atomism are impious, and believers in personal immortality are pious. C)  believers in atomism are pious. D)  Both A and C

5. According to Epicurus, the human soul

A) is made up of atoms

B) cannot survive the death of the body

C) is the organ of sensation

D) All of the above.

6. According to Epicurus, (HINT: see pages 54-55 of chapter 4!)

A) One ought to pursue wealth, as it can afford us a greater number of short, but intense bodily pleasures

B) Not all pleasures are to be chosen

C) The happy life requires that one pursue only the vain desires

D) No one knows whether death may not be the greatest of evils

7. Which of the following BEST describes the logical connection(s) between atomism and hedonism in Epicurus’ thought? Read each answer option very carefully! A)  Atomism denies the existence of incorporeal beings, such as immortal souls. If the human soul—the organ of perception and thought—is made up of atoms which disperse back into nature at life’s end, then death would be nothing more than a dreamless, eternal sleep and not a journey into another, potentially wretched, world. The Epicurean, knowing this, thereby achieves a reassuring calmness of mind, a tranquility of soul. B)  According to atomism, the universe is made up exclusively of atoms and void, and there are immortal gods which are highly complex compounds of atoms. These gods direct the course of human events, and reward individuals who avoid overindulgence in sensual pleasures, and punish with infirmity and disease those who do not. C)  According to atomism, the universe is made up exclusively of atoms and void, having been created this way by the gods. In order to live a good and happy life, the human being must practice moderation and self-restraint with regard to the bodily pleasures, and concentrate all of his energies on “knowing the truth about god.” Only when he understands that mankind was designed to live according to the universal moral law established by his Maker can he enjoy the tranquility of soul which constitutes the very highest kind of pleasure. D)  According to atomism, the universe is made up atoms as well as spiritual beings, and the human being is a combination of body and spiritual soul. The very BEST life will be one dedicated exclusively to caring for our immortal soul so as to be rewarded in the afterlife by the gods.

8. A man brutally murders an innocent victim. According to Epicurus, in what way would this act rightly be considered “evil”? (HINT: see pages 55-56 of chapter 4!) A)  Such an act is a direct violation of the divine commandment: “Thou shalt not kill.” B)  Such an act is a direct violation of the victim’s unalienable right to life. C)  The criminal is doing irreparable harm to his own soul. D)  Such an act is evil insofar as it engenders a fear in the mind of the criminal of eventually being caught and punished severely by the civil authorities.   9. Which of the following arguments against vulgar hedonism does Epicurus NOT make?

(HINT: see pages 54-55 of chapter 4!) A)  Even though every pain is an evil, not all pains are to be avoided.

B)  Vulgar hedonism undermines traditional morality. C)  The pains consequent upon over-indulgence either cancel the pleasures or leave a balance of pain. D)  The vulgar hedonist fails to discriminate properly among the various desires and the different pleasures that come from their satisfaction.

10. Each of the following is, according to Epicurus, an essential ingredient to living well EXCEPT:

A) Friendship

B) Equanimity

C) Health

D) Wealth

Chapter 5

1. Each of the following is an essential feature of law EXCEPT:

a. It must be rational.

b. It must be made known.

c. It aims at the good of certain individuals only.

d. It must be made by whoever has care of the community.

2. Law is more concerned with protecting property rights than with making human beings good.

T/F

3. Each of the following is a type of law discussed by St. Thomas in our reading EXCEPT:

a. divine law

b. eternal law

c. human law

d. none of the above

4. If a law is not promulgated, then

a. It is not a legitimate law.

b. Everyone has a duty to search for and discover it.

c. It is binding only on those who are able to discover it.

d. None of the above.

5. A law whose effect is to diminish the common good would, according to St. Thomas, be

a. Legitimate, so long as it’s made by him who has care of the community.

b. An ordinance of reason.

c. Legitimate, so long as it’s promulgated.

d. Tyrannical.

6. Which of the following statements about the eternal law is correct? (HINT: see page 64!)

a. It is God’s rule over the cosmos

b. It is identical with God’s essence, and as such cannot be known in itself.

c. It is identical with Divine Reason

d. All of the above

7. Divine law is necessary because (HINT: see pages 62-63!)

a. Of the restricted scope of the human law.

b. Of man’s inability to judge other men’s motives and intent.

c. Man’s ultimate end is not discoverable by human reason.

d. All of the above.

8. Each of the following statements is consistent with St. Thomas’ natural law theory EXCEPT:

a. The good is that which is consistent with man’s nature.

b. All “lifestyles” are perfectly natural, and hence good.

c. The purpose of law is to make men good.

d. That which runs contrary to man’s nature is “evil”.

9. Each of the following is a natural human inclination enumerated by Thomas Aquinas EXCEPT:

a. To know the truth about God

b. To procreate

c. To live in society

d. None of the above.

10. According to Thomas Aquinas’ concept of Natural Law, all of the following would be deemed immoral EXCEPT:

a. Suicide

b. Homosexuality

c. Willful ignorance

d. None of the above

11. According to St. Thomas’ Natural Law teaching, (HINT: see pages 59, 61-63, 65-68!)

i. God is the author of the natural law

ii. man-made laws are always grounded in the natural law

iii. Nobody can have any understanding of the natural law if they lack access to the Bible and its teachings

iv. morality is inseparable from human nature

v. Man’s natural inclinations in one society may be completely different in another society

vi. killing innocents is wrong only because in the Bible God said “Thou Shalt Not Kill,” i.e., there is no other standard of good and bad that can be known independently of the Bible.

vii. Philosophy (the love of wisdom) is natural, and hence good.

a. i, ii, iii.

b. i, v, vi.

c. i, iv, vii.

d. iii, vi, vii.

12. Human law

a. Is man-made.

b. Is the application of natural law

c. Is valid only if it aims at the common good

d. All of the above

Chapter 6

1. According to Hobbes, which two needs drive human action?

a. Personal gain and love of others

b. Personal gain and survival

c. Love of others and survival

d. Love of others and desire for peace

2. Why, according to Hobbes, do human beings enter into a commonwealth?

(HINT: see page 78, paragraph 30!)

a. Self-preservation

b. Commodious living

c. Stability

d. All of the above

3. According to Hobbes’ Leviathan, human life without government would be characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:

(HINT: see page 76, paragraph 17!)

a. no agriculture

b. no technology

c. no clocks

d. all of the above

4. “But though the benefits of this life may be much furthered by mutual help; since yet those may be better attained to by dominion, than by the society of others, I hope no body will doubt, but that men would much more greedily be carried by nature, if all fear were removed, to obtain dominion, than to gain society.”

What is Hobbes’ main argument in this passage?

a. Most people would prefer to achieve comfortable self-preservation

through entering into collaborative associations

b. The life of a tyrant is preferable to that of a mere citizen

c. The life of a citizen is preferable to that of a greedy tyrant

d. Without law and order, life is “solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short.”

5. “Drive safely: the life you save may be your own.”

This would be an example of:

(HINT: see page 80!)

a. Psychological realism

b. Christ’s Golden Rule

c. Hobbes’ Golden Rule

d. A and B

6. According to Hobbes, government censorship is necessary

(HINT: see page 81, paragraph 46!)

a. because some opinions might incite people to rebellion

b. In order to promote concord

c. Because peace, stability, and security are more important than “free speech” rights

d. All of the above

7. In Hobbes, “good” and “evil” refer in the State of Nature to:

(HINT: see page 74!)

a. Pleasure and pain

b. Virtue and vice

c. The object of love, the object of aversion

d. A and C

8. Each of the following is a characteristic of the state of nature EXCEPT:

a. It is a war of every man against every man

b. Life is solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short

c. There are abundant resources available for human consumption

d. There are no property rights

9. For Hobbes, the greatest good and the greatest evil, respectively, for a human being are:

a. Glory and disgrace

b. Comfortable self-preservation and violent death

c. Salvation of one’s soul and eternal damnation

d. Virtue and vice

10. St. Thomas Aquinas and Thomas Hobbes would agree on which of the following?

a. Commodious living is the highest object of human aspiration

b. Man is by nature a political animal

c. Do unto others as you would have others do unto you

d. None of the above

11. Each of the following is true about Hobbes’ social contract theory EXCEPT:

a. It is the most viable means of escaping the horrors of the state of nature

b. It stipulates that one must be willing to sacrifice one’s life on behalf of the commonwealth

c. It forbids private men the freedom to be the judge of good and evil actions.

d. It exists for the sake of preventing men from harming one another and being harmed by one another

12. Which of the following BEST captures the difference between Hobbes’ Law of nature and St. Thomas Aquinas’ Natural law?

a. The former induces you to treat others as you would want to be treated, whereas the latter induces you not to treat others as you would not want to be treated

b. The former seeks the good of the body only, whereas the latter seeks the good of both body and soul

c. The former promotes charity and self-sacrifice, whereas the latter promotes hedonism

d. The former sees justice ultimately as the product of divine legislation, whereas the latter sees justice strictly as a product of human legislation

Unit 3 Study Questions

Chapter 7

1. Nietzsche announces the death of God in a parable about

a. A madman holding a lantern

b. A lonely prophet walking the earth

c. Jesus

d. A desert hermit living in a cave

2. The madman’s proclamation that “God is dead” refers to the fact that

a. He has found incontrovertible proof that God never really existed in the first place

b. God has temporarily withdrawn Himself from the world, only to return at the end of time

c. People have ceased to believe in God

d. None of the above

3. The madman finds the death of God to be so terrifying because

a. All of his contemporaries are grief-stricken at the sudden disappearance of God, and do not know how to recover from this frightening piece of news

b. Without God human life is devoid of any intrinsic purpose, value, and meaning

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

4. Shakespeare’s Macbeth says that life “is a tale told by an idiot, full of sound and fury, signifying nothing.” This would be an example of

a. Theism

b. Virtue ethics

c. Hedonism

d. Nihilism

5. “Life itself is essentially appropriation, injury, conquest of the strange and weak, suppression, severity…and at the least…exploitation.” Nietzsche here refers explicitly to

(HINT: see page 86, 89, paragraph 3!)

a. The Will to Power

b. Slave Morality

c. Judeo-Christianity

d. The German people

6. Each of the following is a characteristic of an aristocratic society EXCEPT:

(HINT: see pages 88-90!)

a. They come into being through conquest

b. Master Morality

c. They are the embodiment of will-to-power

d. They champion full equality among all members of society

7. Master morality is to slave morality as

(HINT: see pages 86-88, 90-91!)

a. nobility is to baseness

b. higher is to lower

c. affirmation of life is to negation of life

d. All of the above

8. The “good” of master morality is to the “good” of slave morality as

a. Noble is to despicable

b. Mediocrity is to excellence

c. Despicable is to noble

d. Rare is to exceptional

9. The “evil” of slave morality is to the “bad” of master morality as

a. cowardly is to heroic

b. lover is to beloved

c. self-glorification is to resentment

d. mediocrity is to excellence

10. The “good” of master morality is to the “evil” of slave morality as

a. resentment is to honor

b. hero is to coward

c. base is to noble

d. They are one and the same thing

11. According to Nietzsche, the modern liberal democratic ideal

a. encourages slavishness

b. is the only honorable value to be found in Judeo-Christianity

c. is embraced by master morality

d. is shunned by slave morality

12. Nihilism is the belief that

a. God is Good

b. Nothingness is an illusion of the mind

c. If we remain ignorant we will annihilate ourselves

d. The world is utterly meaningless

13. According to Nietzsche, the slavish individual expresses _________ for the noble types.

a. admiration

b. resentment

c. a feeling of kinship

d. affection

14. According to Nietzsche, slave morality originates from

(HINT: see page 87, 91!)

a. a feeling of superiority

b. the need for slaves to survive

c. economic inequality

d. faith in a higher power

15. According to Nietzsche, master morality originates from

a. the aristocratic man’s spontaneous self-glorification

b. resentment toward other aristocratic men

c. the need to combat low self-esteem

d. a will to the denial of life

Chapter 8

1. Ortega can best be described as

a. a nihilist

b. an elitist

c. a feminist

d. an egalitarian

2. According to Ortega, the masses have begun to insinuate themselves in each of the following areas EXCEPT:

a. politics

b. education

c. the priesthood

d. the arts

3. According to Ortega, the phenomenon of the “masses” as a concentrated group gaining power and influence in all sectors of society

a. is nothing new

b. is consistent with the rise of fascism in Spain

c. is a recent phenomenon

d. is a cause for great celebration

4. Each of the following is true about the mass man EXCEPT:

a. he is the “average” man

b. he belongs exclusively to the working class

c. he is comfortable in his mediocrity

d. he is not particularly ambitious

5. Each of the following is true about the “select individual” EXCEPT:

a. he snobbishly believes that he is simply superior to everyone else

b. he sets very high standards for himself

c. he assigns himself great tasks

d. his presence is not limited to any particular socio-economic stratum of society

6. The select individual is to the mass man

a. as higher is to lower

b. as rare is to common

c. as noble is to vulgar

d. all of the above

7. Before the advent of the “crowd phenomenon,” artistic, political, and intellectual enterprises were directed by

(HINT: see page 101, paragraph 10!)

a. anybody who wanted to take part

b. only those who were select individuals

c. only those who were qualified or at least claimed to be qualified

d. all of the above

8. According to Ortega, hyperdemocracy

a. is a threat to liberal democracy

b. is the mass man’s way of imposing itself on the rest of society

c. is the mass man’s way of stifling human excellence

d. all of the above

9. Each of the following is a characteristic of the “select individual” EXCEPT:

a. judges himself against a high standard.

b. complacency

c. qualified for intellectual, aesthetic, and political endeavors

d. runs the risk of being crushed under the weight of the mass

Chapter 9

1. Sartre’s phrase “existence precedes essence” means that

(HINT: see pages 107-108!)

a. God created man as a “blank slate” on which he can make his own essence.

b. Man created God in his own image

c. Man first has an essence, and then he confers on himself existence

d. Man exists in a godless universe, without any determinate nature or essence: he creates his own essence through his actions.

2. According to Sartre, when you choose how to live, you are choosing

(HINT: see pages 108-110!)

a. for your loved ones

b. for all mankind

c. for nobody but oneself

d. none of the above

3. In Sartre’s view, the existentialist finds the fact that God does not exist

(HINT: see pages 110-111!)

a. deeply distressing

b. liberating

c. insignificant

d. absurd to the point of being comical

4. Sartre argues that when he speaks of anguish, he is referring to

a. the feeling of having been abandoned by God

b. the fact that we are not responsible for our actions

c. man’s feeling of total and deep responsibility for all mankind

d. all of the above

5. According to Sartre, each human being is the sum total of his/her

a. hopes

b. actions

c. beliefs

d. ambitions

6. Sartre argues that when he speaks of forlornness, he means that

a. We are not responsible for our actions

b. We can never truly understand human nature

c. God does not exist, so we must face all of the consequences of this

d. all of the above.

7. Sartre criticizes certain atheists in the 1880s that wanted to create an atheist ethics on the grounds that

a. without God, there can be no a priori standard of good to which everyone is bound to conform.

b. there can be no salvation without embracing our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ

c. atheists are generally very immoral people

d. none of the above

8. Sartre argues that when he speaks of despair, he means that

(HINT: see pages 112-113!)

a. when one chooses, one chooses for oneself only

b. one should reckon only with what depends on our will

c. life is a tale told by an idiot

d. all of the above

9. According to Sartre, the value of one’s feeling is determined by

(HINT: see page 111!)

a. the way one feels

b. what one believes

c. the way one acts

d. all of the above

10. Each of the following is true for Sartre EXCEPT:

a. You are the sum total of your hopes and dreams

b. Responsibility for one’s actions involves being responsible for everyone

c. Man’s situation is characterized by anguish, forlornness, and despair

d. We are “condemned to be free”

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